Do Gravity waves follow the Inverse Square law? Do they experience Time Dilatation?

I'm asking if anyone has ever really proven what I think are several untested assumptions about Gravity waves.

I think Gravity waves exists, and will someday be measured.
All current experiements, however, have failed.

I question if they travel at the speed of electromagnetic waves (maybe just a little faster), if they attenuate like electromagnetic waves (I think they don't), and if they are subject to Time Dilatation (I think not).

It would solve very many problems if they don't follow these standards for Mass-Energy waves.

campbelp20022006-07-08T21:13:01Z

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Gravity obeys the inverse square law, so why wouldn't gravity waves do the same? After all, gravity waves are just kinks in the gravitational field, and that field gets weaker as the square of the distance.

JamesPond2006-07-08T22:29:48Z

I think gravity exists only as a static resonance field in space, around objects relative to their particular mass and density. Why would they 'travel' if they are not in wave form. Intellectually, I don't see a wave property within gravitational physics without some energy source inducing a 'pumping' effect, such as an internal molten density movement creating a pulse as a result of heat and pressure driven density changes. Galaxies could have gravitational waves because there are cumulative forces within all that mass interaction, energy generated again. The 'gravity field' remains constant as per the mass and density of the object, and loses strength further from the parent object. Thats different from attenuation as in electromagnetic wave strength. There may be confusion caused by magnetic fields from ferro concentrations within the mass or electromagnetic waves created by the same internal molten movements against ferro mineral concentrations. But what do I know, I stayed at a holiday inn last night.

Paul B2006-07-08T21:44:48Z

I believe forces move in opposite directions, i.e. toward and through each other, in such a way that a needle device trying to conduct any sort of measurement would simple remain pointing at zero, all forces being equal, or as surmised, undetectable, even though each force might be immense, just opposite therefore appearing neutral. The difficulty is that the experimentor, or the measuror, has once again become part of, therefore, altering, the results of the experiment. By this I mean, it is impossible at present to construct a device outside of these influences, to then be introduced into these influences, thereby measuring them. All machines constructed within the system are part of and will suffer the impossibility of detecting the presence of what it has never know the absence of.
The conclusion of a final or future successful measurement, so to speak, of the forces in question of these matters can be visualized in two ways.
First imagine a semi-permeable membrane that allowed the force, in one direction, or dimension, as it were, to flow "through", while, blocking, or capturing, the flow of the opposing equals. This would of course render the measurer, or experimentor invisible (actually blasted to the other dimension or corner of the universe by the sudden "wind sail" that had been unleashed.)
The other visualization is that of pac man. Imagine a device or engine that feeds on the force in one direction. Like pac man gobbling little specules or wave-ules if you prefer, of emination from force source one, but not 2 or x. This of course would allow movement at the speeds usually reported of alien space travelers and imagined / modeled far us in sci-fi flics by warp speed and the like.
Either way, it is not the moving of the needle that will finally prove the existance of what we already know and sense to be true, but the wrapping of the mind around the concept of filtering and capturing the "wind", or else, gobbling it, which of course depends on whether you are currently hot, or hungry.

Derek W2006-07-08T20:45:30Z

Since Space-Time is interrelated on most levels except approaching lightspeed, I would assume that they followed the laws of Spacetime, i.e., near light speed. The reason? For one thing Gravity and Space Curvatures are Interrealted, one existing or being interwoven with the other, so in that case, how could space exist outside of gravity or gravity outside of a spatial warp? Therefore, you must be thinking of Gravitons, not gravity waves. Only these could go outside the laws your speaking of.

packerofudge69692006-07-08T21:02:22Z

The first two answers are both correct.
Gravity waves have never been produced at such strength of detection.
And, gravitons are hypothetical particles with a very long lifetime, no charge and no electric mass. A graviton itself is the quantum of gravitational interaction.
The inverse square law refers to any point source in which its influential force is equal in all directions with no limitations to the range. The Inverse Square law is strictly geometric in its origin and applies to many direct phenomena.
Point sources of electric field, light, sound or radiation and gravitational force obey the inverse square law.

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