Christian fundamentalists: 1 Cor. 7:12, true or false?
In 1 Cor. 7:10, Paul writes: "And unto the unmarried I command, yet not I, but the Lord, 'Let not the husband put away the wife.'" No problem there, for Paul is saying that the command is not really his, but the Lord's.
In verse 7:12, however, Paul reverses the authority, saying: "But to the rest speak I, not the Lord." The straightforward reading is that up until verse 12, Paul has been speaking for the Lord, and now he is speaking for himself. One can go further and say that, even speaking for himself, he is speaking through the inspiration of the Holy Spirit, and what he says is true. But if what Paul says, speaking for himself, is inspired, what happens to his assertion that it is from him, NOT THE LORD? [emphasis mine].
So, is the phrase "Not the Lord" inspired or not?