Is there a minimum increment of time?
Did Max Planck suggest that there is such a minimum increment?
Did Max Planck suggest that there is such a minimum increment?
Anonymous
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Yep. ...and it's called the Planck time... Planck was such a humble fellow... <just kidding> see link...
Anonymous
Explain this then everything has an exact opposite in the universe black white up down right left I could go on for a really long time but Ill stop with matter and anti matter and past time and future time but what about present time there would be no opposite. So if applied with Quantum Mechanics or current laws of physics what if there wasnt a minimum amount of time only past and future time and also your theory of as long as you come up with the same 50mph sounds great and all but using Planck theory it is moving at the speed of light when calculated you could not change the numbers and get the same result
blea
Increment Of Time
Bobby P
Not exactly. The basis of time and distance come from the unit of energy associated with Planck's constant. Energy is defined in terms of distance and time. You can separate these into whatever parts you wish as long as you don't make one of them zero. As an example, suppose the speed of a car is 50 MPH. This speed could be expressed as 10 A's per B or 5 A's per 6 B's as long as the values you assign to A and B come up to 50 MPH.
It is often said that the smallest unit of time is 10^-43 seconds, but this is not true. To understand this time, it is best to start at the beginning of the Big Bang. Initially everything is though to have been pure energy. However, even pure energy is subject to quantum affects. Particles and sub particles were continually being formed and reabsorbed into the ball of energy. As the initial energy began to expand and cool, more and more particles were being formed and lasted for longer and longer periods of time.
There were two ways to describe what was happening, one was to describe things using the Laws of Quantum Mechanics the other was to describe them using the current Laws of Pjysics. As the process continued, more and more particles were being formed and it began to make more sense to describe these particles using the current Laws of Physics rather than Quantum Mechanics.
At 10^-43 seconds, the ways to describe what was going on "sorta" caught up with each other. At 10^-43 seconds, it made more sense to describe the particles using the current Laws of Physics and to describe the quantum processes still occuring using the laws of Quantum Mechanics. After this time the current Laws of Physics Laws began to dominate quantum effects.
Anonymous
yes. It is called the planck time and it equals to 10^-43 seconds.