i was talking to my sister and said,
"i've seen it be done before!"
and then her and my other sister went on for about 15 minutes about why that wasn't grammatically correct to say "be done," but didn't make much sense! so, is it grammatically correct or not?
lol i had a feeling some of you would correct the rest of the question! i was too lazy to refine it.
thanks for all the answers!
Rosa L
Favorite Answer
These answers are amazing. At this writing, there are 46 answers that claim that this construction is incorrect. Why do 46 people who have no knowledge of English show that lack of knowledge by posting such answers?
It is perfectly correct in both grammar and usage.
The present infinitive of the verb 'do' is 'to do.'
The present passive infinitive is 'to be done' - To + be + past participle.
Now, how about this sentence:
It should be done.
Pretty normal - 'be done' is the bare infinitive - the infinitive without the 'to'. You drop the 'to' after verbs like 'should' and 'might.' You don't say 'I should to go' - You say 'I should go.'
Next, somebody does it - whatever it is.
I saw it be done. Still sound OK?
Someone else does the same thing.
I've seen it be done before.
Anonymous
it's grammatically correct
Sophist
Yes and no. If it is intended to be done as in a physical action, then the correct form is "seen it done before". If it is a procedure that could be done at some future time. then the form is correct.
Rokai
It may be better to say "I've seen it done before."
But, there is nothing incorrect about "be done".
To put it simply, Yes, it's correct, in the sense that it's not wrong.
Anonymous
I've seen it done before would be grammatically correct, sooo Just drop the be.