What am I doing wrong, because 1+1 DOES NOT equal 1...?

Question

Anybody got an explanation for this?

Problem: A=1, B=1.

A=B.
A^2=AB (multiply both sides by A. so far, so good.))
A^2 - B^2 = AB - B^2 (Subtract B^2 from both sides... still is legitimate.)
(A+B)(A-B) = (B)(A-B) (factoring... part 1 expands to A^2 + AB - AB - B^2, so that's good factoring, part 2 expands to AB - B^2, so that's good factoring too.)
(A+B) = B (divide both sides by A-B, still good...)
1+1 = 1 (substitute values.)

How on earth do legitimate math procedures make this 1+1=1? Am I missing something?

Pat · Accepted Answer

Division by 0 through (A-B), which is not possible.

Ozzy · Answer

subtracting B^2 from both sides is probably your problem. if A^2 is 1 and B^2 is 1 and you take 1 from 1 you get a whopping ZERO, and once you get a zero in algebra you end up going in circles (as the girl above me beautifully demonstrated).

:).

Anonymous · Answer

A - B = 0

You are dividing by 0 in the 4th step.

? · Answer

look! 34 = 89

proof:

0 = 0
0(34) = 0(89)
 now divide by 0
34 = 89

O&#39;Bin · Answer

Let us depart from you at (A+B)(A-B)=B(A-B). The expression leads to
(A-B)(A+B-B)=0
(A-B)*A=0
A=1 is not zero; therefore, A-B=0, or A=B
That is the only legitimate result.

What am I doing wrong, because 1+1 DOES NOT equal 1...?

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