Beatles aside, was the "British Invasion" of bands into U.S. bigger than "U.S. Invasion" of bands into Britain?
1) Regarding the "British Invasion" [of rockers/rock bands] of the mid to late 1960's: ... Apart from The Beatles, is it really true that more American youth of the 60's developed a love of British bands than vice versa? . . . In other words, is it really true that the scale of the British invasion into US was much bigger than the scale of any U.S. invasion into Britain?
2) How would you go about using musical statistics of the period to definititvely answer this question?
3) Assuming there was indeed such an "invasion", which other countries besides the U.S. were also successfuly "invaded"?
4) Assuming there was such an invasion, Why was it assymetric in favor of Britain? . . . What would be the root, cultural, historical causes of British bands invading America much more successfully than of American bands invading Britain?
5) Was the "British Invasion" first major example -- for popular music anyway -- of a "Music Invasion" across around the world (or at least across an ocean)? . . . If not, what were some of the major precendents?
Regarding question 4 -- It's true of course that America was a bigger market, and British musicians might be more motivated to promote themselves in American than American musicians would be to promote themselves in Britain. But for 1964-1965, British dominance on American charts was far too great to result primarily from just marketing. For this period, there have to be some deeper cultural/artistic forces at work, surely? For example, look at The Who: What bands in America were composing/performing anything artistically similar to what the Who were doing in 1965 ["My Generation", etc]? What I'm really getting at here, is something like: why were British bands pretty far ahead of American ones in discovering/catching/riding waves the American audience would be, or was already, prepared to embrace?