Jehovah's witnesses and other Christians, may I ask a question regarding John 10:24-39?

John 10:24-39

New International Version (NIV)

24 The Jews who were there gathered around him, saying, “How long will you keep us in suspense? If you are the Messiah, tell us plainly.”
25 Jesus answered, “I did tell you, but you do not believe. The works I do in my Father’s name testify about me, 26 but you do not believe because you are not my sheep. 27 My sheep listen to my voice; I know them, and they follow me. 28 I give them eternal life, and they shall never perish; no one will snatch them out of my hand. 29 My Father, who has given them to me, is greater than all[a]; no one can snatch them out of my Father’s hand. 30 I and the Father are one.”

31 Again his Jewish opponents picked up stones to stone him, 32 but Jesus said to them, “I have shown you many good works from the Father. For which of these do you stone me?”

33 “We are not stoning you for any good work,” they replied, “but for blasphemy, because you, a mere man, claim to be God.”

34 Jesus answered them, “Is it not written in your Law, ‘I have said you are “gods”’[b]? 35 If he called them ‘gods,’ to whom the word of God came—and Scripture cannot be set aside— 36 what about the one whom the Father set apart as his very own and sent into the world? Why then do you accuse me of blasphemy because I said, ‘I am God’s Son’? 37 Do not believe me unless I do the works of my Father. 38 But if I do them, even though you do not believe me, believe the works, that you may know and understand that the Father is in me, and I in the Father.” 39 Again they tried to seize him, but he escaped their grasp.


Why do the Jews accuse Jesus of blasphemy?

Why does Jesus say that the Jews are accusing Him of blasphemy?


Why does Jesus say that they are stoning Him for claiming to be God's son when they say that they are stoning Him for claiming to be God?

There is something that seems to be almost deceptive about Jesus' words here. It seems that Jesus openly refers to himself as God's son throughout the gospels and no one gets too bent out of shape over it. At times the Jews were confused about His reference to God as His father and at other times they were clearly annoyed but (correct me if I'm wrong) most of the time people just seemed to ignore it.

Was Jesus being a little sly? Was He changing the subject? What was He doing by saying this?


Please seek the Lord in prayer and humility before answering this question. This is a sincere question. It is not an attempt to start a debate or to prove that Jesus either is or is not God,

2012-04-25T14:33:46Z

Keichi,

I think we would all be in agreement that pharisees were looking for any sort of excuse to kill Jesus. They didn't like what he to say about them. They tried to nail him on all sorts of things such as healing and picking grain on the Sabbath but his responses always revealed their own iniquity and falsehood. But in the two instances where the Jews pick up stones it seems to be from an immediate emotional response to something Jesus says, This is different from the calculated attempts trap or accuse Him else where. Are you saying that these are not emotional responses? That the Jews were not genuinely confused by Jesus' words that he and his father are one? They didn't think for even one moment that Jesus was claiming equality with god or deity - even if by misunderstanding what he really meant?

2012-04-25T16:00:24Z

2nd edit - Keichi, it is not the miracles that they had a problem with; it was His teaching - he called them hypocrits to their faces and told them point blank that they would have no part in the kingdom - he also said that they must believe him and accept him in order to get to God - wouldn't you agree that were offended by his claim to the messiah and the son of God (whether his claim be Son only or God himself) they were offended - his miracles served to prove his claims

2012-04-26T06:23:19Z

3rd edot - Keichi, I ask these questions because it's important to have complete and totalintegrity when dealing with the word of God, The JW's here seem to indicate that the Jews were intenionaly twisting Jesus words. Were they intentionaly twisting his words or were they misundersganding him? We need to be clear on this for the sake of integrity. We do not want fo be guilty of misconstrueing or confusing the very words of God.

You are absolutley right that the Jews wanted to kill Jesus from the start (by deceit or otherwise). They understood that he was claiming to be the messiah and they didn't like it.

keiichi2012-04-25T08:55:50Z

Favorite Answer

Question: Why do the Jews accuse Jesus of blasphemy?

To have him killed.

Matthew 26:4 "They took counsel together that they might take Jesus by....deceit...and kill him."

Question: Why does Jesus say that they are stoning Him for claiming to be God's son when they say that they are stoning Him for claiming to be God?

The Jewish leaders were angry because he declared himself to be the Son of God, who had been given a work to do by his Father. John wrote of them:

"For this cause therefore the Jews sought the more to kill him, because he not only broke the Sabbath, but also called God his own Father, making himself equal with God." (John 5:18)

Therefore, the "causes" were really simple excuses to kill Jesus, not that Jesus had actually broken the sabbath, or that he actually claimed to be equal to God.

The Jews:
1) falsely charged him having a demon. (Mark 3:22,30; John 7:20; 8:48,52)
2) They falsely denied that they were seeking to kill him. (John 7:20)
3) They falsely charged that Jesus broke the sabbath. (John 9:16)
4) They falsely charged that Jesus was a sinner. (John 9:25)
5) And they falsely charged that Jesus was making himself equal with God*

*John does not say the grounds for which the Jews sought to kill Jesus are true. The Jewish leaders sought to frame a cause to kill Jesus by deceit (not by truth). -- Matthew 26:4.

New Topic: "The first time the Jews wanted to kill Jesus was when He said...."

The idea to kill Jesus did not spring suddenly; it was not a new issue in the record stated in John 10:33, nor even as recorded in John 7:1 or when they attempted to kill Jesus as recorded in John 8:59; it was an idea that had been in the minds of the Jewish leaders for some time.

Mark 3 reports of Jesus’ healing of the man with a withered hand, which miracle was done on the sabbath. Thus, in their search for a reason to kill Jesus, rather than thinking about praising God if Jesus did a good from God, we read:

“They watched him, whether he would heal him on the Sabbath day, that they might accuse him.” (Mark 3:2)

This definitely shows that they were already seeking some reason to accuse Jesus. Thus Mark 3:6 says:

“The Pharisees went out, and immediately took counsel with the Herodians against him, how they might destroy him.”

Here they thought they might have a clear legal “cause” for which to kill Jesus. It does show that they were already seeking a way to destroy Jesus *before* they came up the false charge that Jesus was claiming to be God [or, a god], or equal to God [or, a god].

Thus, their seeking to kill Jesus after falsely claiming that Jesus was claimed to “God” [or, a god] is not the real reason they were seeking to kill Jesus (John 10:33), but rather the false accusation that was being used as an excuse to do what they had already determined to do.

Jesus had already pointed to the real reason they sought to kill Jesus, that is, because Jesus performed the works of his God and Father. — John 10:32.

Question: Are you saying that these are not emotional responses?

no.

The Jews were emotional. They showed emotional responses prior to picking up stones. For example the first recorded attempt on his life by any of the Jews was in his hometown of Nazareth. He had already performed many works from God in Capernaum, and evidently the people of Nazareth knew of those works.

However, when Jesus read Isaiah 61:1, and, in effect, proclaimed that he was the one spoken in that prophecy, the Jews became angry, and tried to throw him off a cliff. There is nothing at all in the record that hints that Jesus here proclaimed himself to "God". Instead, he was claiming that he was the one spoken of as anointed by Jehovah;

"Jehovah has anointed me." (Isaiah 16:1, World English)

Yet, this is all that was needed to get the people angry enough to want to kill Jesus.

Questions: That the Jews were not genuinely confused by Jesus' words that he and his father are one? They didn't think for even one moment that Jesus was claiming equality with god or deity - even if by misunderstanding what he really meant?

The claim that he was making himself God in John 10:33 was false, regardless of what "understanding" they may have had. Jesus had earlier said to them:

"Why do you not understand what I say? It is because you cannot bear to hear my word." -- John 7:43.

Question: Were they intentionaly twisting his words or were they misundersganding him?

The Jewish leaders were liars, bent on killing Jesus by deceit who did not understand what he said. Are they really the source of Trinitarian belief? Or are Trinitarians going to believe as JW's do that Jesus is the "Son of God" who the Jews wanted to kill because of "good works"? (John 10:32,36)

***End of Space***

R3dleader2012-04-25T07:08:08Z

Good Questions,

1)Because he was saying he was the son of God and the Messiah, which they did not believe him to be. Most believed that signs of the Messiah would be physical (ie freedom from Rome, not of the soul) and thus they believed his claims to blasphemy.

2) Because they were, that is why he was put on the cross. The Sanhedrin pronounced him guilt, the Roman only cared it out.

3)If God is God, then how could any part of him be any less? Think of it his way, what is half of infinity?

4) I am not sure what you mean exactly, but I think you mean the last paragraph and that is Jesus explaining his basis for the claim and his logic.


hope that helps somehow.

volunteer teacher2012-04-25T07:30:07Z

Interesting question.

Verse 33. Most translations here say “God”; Torrey’s translation lowercases the word as “god,” while the interlinear reading of The Emphatic Diaglott says “a god.”

Support for “a god” is found in Jesus’ own answer, in which he quoted from Psalm 82:1-7. As can be seen, this text did not refer to persons as being called “God,” but “gods” and “sons of the Most High.”
According to the context, those whom the Creator called “gods” and “sons of the Most High” in this psalm were Israelite judges who had been practicing injustice, requiring that God himself now judge ‘in the middle of such gods.’ (Ps 82:1-6, 8)

Since God applied these terms to those men, Jesus was certainly not guilty of blasphemy in saying, “I am God’s Son.”

Jesus wants people to reach the conclusion themselves that he is the Christ (Messiah) by comparing his activities with what the Bible foretold that the Christ would accomplish. That is why earlier he charged his disciples not to tell anyone that he was the Christ. And that is why he now goes on to say to these hostile Jews: “The works that I am doing in the name of my Father, these bear witness about me. But you do not believe.” Why do they not believe? Because a lack of humility.

Sincerely, E.

Anonymous2012-04-25T07:38:24Z

No, Jesus was not being deceptive. The Bible tells us there was no deception found in Him, so if there was any deception it was on the part of the antichrist Jews who hated Him. When people hate you they will say and do all manner of evil (lies included) against you.

Why did the Jews accuse Jesus of blasphemy?
Because according to them he was making himself equal to God, which if that was the case he would be guilty of blasphemy. But Jesus said, "My Father is GREATER than I." So at no time did he ever claim to be equal to God because God has no equal.

Why Did Jesus claim the Jews are accusing him of Blasphemy?
Because they were. He claimed to be the Son of God and Messiah. The Jews could only see a human. Even members of Jesus Jewish family thought he was crazy.

Why does Jesus say they are stoning Him for being God's Son when in fact they were stoning Him for claiming to be God?
To the Jews claiming to be God's Son is the same as claiming to be God. They believe He was making Himself equal to God by saying He is God's Son. That is why Jesus said what He said at John 10:34-36. God called certain humans gods who act as God's spokesman and they did not accuse them of blasphemy, so how is it they are accusing Jesus of blasphemy for saying He is the Son of God.

How can a Son be equal to the Father who begot him? Their hatred of Jesus blinded them to the truth. That Jesus was indeed the Messiah, Son of the Living God Jehovah.

Abdijah2012-04-25T07:19:45Z

In the minds of those religious hypocrites, by admitting that he was indeed the Son of God, he was claiming to be equal to God. (John 5:18)

However, Luke 1:31-35 compared with Psalm 83:18 and Exodus 6:3, clearly shows that Jesus is the Son of Jehovah God, and not God himself.

Remember, these were wicked people who wanted Jesus dead.

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