Question on American English contractions:?

Question

I want to start off by saying I am American and am a native English speaker.

I use contractions frequently for auxiliary and linking verbs; and, while I know that in British English it's perfectly acceptable to contract have when NOT being used as an auxiliary, it sounds awful to my American ear.

Example:
"I've ten dollars" is acceptable in British English (if I understand correctly), but it sounds grammatically incorrect to me. It doesn't bother me with linking verbs, as in "She's pretty," but when 'have' is involved, it just sounds wrong.

So my question is, is this a prescriptive rule of American English? Do those of you who are American use this construction?

This IS NOT a question asking for opinions on contraction usage in general. I'm only asking about contractions using the words HAVE OR HAS indicating possession (WITHOUT the word 'got').

PS I've also posted this in the Languages section; I'm sorry if you've had to read this twice. Please disregard if you've already answered. Thanks!

Gretchen S · Accepted Answer

Prescriptive rules seldom carry much weight these days, and even if they did, people would still speak the same way.  We can say it is a "rule" in American English that "have" is only contracted when it is an auxiliary and not a main verb.  Americans don't contract "have" as a main verb.

But the reason it's a rule is that that's the way we talk.  You might find the "rule" in a book for English learners, but it would not appear in a college text for native speakers.

But:  I notice that it used to be a common locution.  It's very noticeable in reruns of "I Love Lucy." for example, which was filmed in the fifties.  I always wonder when it went out of fashion.

chasvanblom · Answer

I also see / hear this grammatical faux-pas overused.
In most connections, I am noticed for using proper grammar when local jarganisms such as incorrect-grammar, spl/lit infinitives, dangling prepositions, etc. are more widely used.

In respect to your question, the contraction "''ve" is accepted grammar for "have."
"I have" is contracted to "I've" whereas ownership of an item is more-accepted to use the non-contracted word, "have..."  ex. "I have a glass of water" is more proper use of this conjunction.

Granted these uses / misuses run rampant in many grammatical-circles and societies, we must remember that America is still The Melting Pot of many cultures, ethnicities and speaking-patterns.

Question on American English contractions:?

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