A majority ruling by the U.S. supreme court that is not unanimous does not become precedent. (true or false)?

Slickterp2017-12-01T14:57:12Z

False.

Athena2017-12-01T02:30:48Z

Tue, but it still can be used to argue the validity of your case.

?2017-12-01T01:46:33Z

False. It's a tie breaker (with one judge absent) that means it does not become precedent. Also, whatever the lower court ruling was, still remains. However, that could change if the court later decides to rehear the case (hopefully with all nine judges).