Anonymous
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Well, because it won't serve any purpose? If Joe cheated on Jane, and he got chlamydia, he could be treated and cured before Jane ever found out. Jane could still have it, not knowing she'd been exposed.
If Joe was exposed to HIV, he may test negative for weeks before testing positive. Therefore, a negative test doesn't mean Jane has nothing to worry about.
You are making quantum leaps here, in assuming test aren't required. In fact, some years ago a friend's marriage broke down and the partner admitted to cheating throughout the entire 20 year relationship, thus exposing my friend to HIV. Part of the negotiations was payment for testing for my friend.
If your goal is to embarrass the cheater, I guess divorcing for cause should be enough.
Tara
Maybe because the Court is for a divorce to be granted … not for health issues (such as an STD).
linkus86
Because adultery does not always result in an STD.
Anonymous
It's not the state's job to babysit people. Even more, it's not their place to require medical care. That starts down a very bad path!
If someone thinks they should be tested, they do this themselves. Or maybe they forget about it and their attorney recommends it. If it turns out a spouse got an STD because of the other spouse's actions, their attorney could ask for reimbursement of all costs associated with that, even including "mental anguish" or whatever.
robert x
any adulterer with and common sense at all uses condoms and protection to prevent the transmission of STD. so requiring a std test wouldnt in most cases make any sense at all and would be pointless