Why is the UK and other countries ragging on Iran for violating an accord the UNITED STATES tore up about a year ago?
An agreement is only binding when BOTH parties - not just one - are following the rules. If EITHER party pulls out of the agreement - as the United States did - then the other party - Iran in this case - is NOT legally bound to comply with the terms of the former agreement, as the first party is not in compliance and has, in fact, declared the deal null and void. So the UK and other parties have no grounds for sanctioning Iran for violating a deal that no longer exists.