Why "boiled" in spanish can be masculine or feminine? ?

Is there an example where this would matter? It's a cooking verb so I'm confused on why it can change to be masculine or feminine. Like if I'm boiling an egg or potatoes there is nothing to signify sex in the situation so why is it even an option? Is there a food I'm not thinking of that would require it to be feminine?

2021-02-11T04:11:25Z

Hey karen. I'm still knocking my head over what would require there to be a difference if the food doesn't have a sex v_v  perhaps google translate is sht and there is no feminine masculine change and it solely remains in a masculine form. Maybe it's okay to use either form any time 🤔😣😓

2021-02-11T19:18:45Z

Lol I live in Connecticut and english is taught very well. That is not the problem. I'm a little frustrated I still don't have an example of what would require the feminine version. I made it clear I know you need to change based on what's being referred to. But again, egg has no sex. So what boiled food would require the feminine version of boiled? Cows are female but boiling one isn't normal. 

2021-02-14T17:21:34Z

I never said it was stupid dipshit, I am half latin trying to understand. You're so lonely you want to judge someone for simply bettering themselves? Get fked retard

2021-04-06T01:20:30Z

You get what you give dipshit. Don't be so slow. And thanks for showing how stupid you are by answering anonymously and then following the question on your account 🤦‍♀️🤦‍♀️🤦‍♀️🤦‍♀️ troll much?? Get a life

Bruce2021-02-13T17:07:02Z

Grammatical gender has nothing to do with physical sex or social gender, you idiot. Until you learn this, please stop yammering about how Google and the entire Spanish language are stupid. You are the stupid one here.

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Anonymous2021-02-11T18:30:38Z

It's not about SEXE (4-letter word) but about grammatical GENDER

10

?2021-02-11T16:04:43Z

First, foods do have gender in Spanish. All nouns do. Adjectives take on the gender of the noun. "Boiled" can be a past tense verb, as in "She boiled the eggs", but the past participle is also used as an adjective. That is true for most verbs.

"the striped shirt"- "striped" is the past participle of "to stripe".
"the boiled egg"- "boiled" is the past participle of 'to boil".

So adjectives can be either masculine or feminine, depending on the noun they modify.

Your problem is that English grammar isn't taught very well in school. 

10

busterwasmycat2021-02-11T14:20:21Z

boiled would be used as an adjective, and Spanish, like many languages, has gender for its nouns, and the adjective must match gender with the noun it is applied to.

Just the way the language works: nouns have gender, and adjectives have adjustable genders which are matched to the gender of the associated noun.  For the most part, the idea of gender is not actually anything that makes much sense in terms of some idea of sex, of masculinity or femininity, although common words such as mother father sister brother actually have genders which correspond to the sex of the thing it is used to describe.

tall aunt and tall uncle would use different forms of the adjective for tall: alta tia versus alto tio.

Boiled can also be used as the past participle of a verb, and usually would only have one fixed form in that role (the form would be that which is typical of its masculine gender form when used as an adjective; or, really, the masculine form of the adjective is identical to the past participle of the verb).

21

Karen L2021-02-11T03:24:51Z

Just a guess here but if 'boiled' is used as an adjective, not a verb, it takes the gender of the noun it modifies. Yes, boiled can be part of a verb phrase, but it can also be an adjective. In 'the egg has boiled' it's a verb. In 'it's a boiled egg', it's an adjective.

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