Why would Jesus command the disciples to "WAIT FOR THE PROMISE" (Acts 1:4) of Holy Spirit baptism (Acts 1:5) when one baptism but Matt 28:19?

ALLEGEDLY STATES THAT JESUS COMMANDED (((TWO))) BAPTISMS WHEN EPHESIANS 4:5 SAYS ((("ONE))) BAPTISM?"

2021-02-15T21:08:47Z

@Magix

So you believe Jesus told His disciples "Go" (Matthew 28:19) "Worship with men's hands" (Acts 17:25) "baptizing them in a DO NOTHING powerless water baptism that makes TWO baptisms (Ephesians 4:5) "in the (((NAME))) of some TITLES (I Corinthians 12:6) "Father, Son and Holy Ghost" (Matthew 28:19)?  

Doesn't that DEGRADE the "one baptism" that JESUS DOES (John 1:33)?

You don't believe Jesus has enough POWER to perform "one baptism" that HE needs help from a man?

Your (((IGNORANT))) 

2021-02-15T21:11:57Z

@USER

See comment under Magix.

So you believe there a TWO "Lord, TWO faiths, [and] TWO baptisms" (Eph 4:5)?

Since I'm " stubborn refusal to interpret Ephesians 4:5 in a manner that accords with the ***clear, immediate textual context" 

Then YOUR interpretation of "TWO Lords, TWO faiths, [and] TWO baptisms" (Ephesians 4:5) is  RIGHT?

You (((IGNORANT!)))

2021-02-15T21:16:18Z

@BC = BRAINWASHED CATHOLIC

What the HELL is a nicene creed or whatever the LIE is called?

Where it that in Scripture (Is 8:20)? If NOT just some (((MORE))) MAN MADE SHYT from the LYING pedophile so called 'catholic church.

What did Jesus need to die for if water baptism "forgives sins?"  We already had water so you are saying Christ's dying was all in van (Gal 2:21)

"Without blood there is no remission" (Heb 9:22) "For the blood of His Son Jesus Christ cleanses us from all sins" (I Jn 1:7)

Doug Catholic2021-02-14T22:58:02Z

The universal Christian Nicene Creed declares only ONE baptism, for the forgiveness of sins.

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User2021-02-14T17:53:43Z

Because that's what he wanted them to do.

That is:
he wanted them to wait in Jerusalem
until they had received the baptism of the Holy Spirit
which occurred on the day of Pentecost.

Your stubborn refusal to interpret Ephesians 4:5 in a manner that accords with the ***clear, immediate textual context" is something that will cause you to contradict plain and clear Bible teaching until you accept what Paul wrote immediately before that verse.

20

magix1512021-02-14T15:39:09Z

Matt 28:19 is Jesus telling his disciples to go preach and baptize those people who want it. It does not sat anything about 2 baptisms. Acts 1:4 is at a future time from Matt 28:19 where he tells those in the room with him to wait for the spirit to come to them.  Updates: Norine, read your bible. Jesus said those things. Not me. Not you. Jesus did, and therefore god did. Are you saying god was wrong? That your interpretation is more correct than the word of god? 

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