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swicher
swicher asked in Science & MathematicsMathematics · 10 years ago

does f'(0) exist given f(x)= 0?

3 Answers

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  • Lisa
    Lv 5
    10 years ago
    Favorite Answer

    f(x) = 0

    f'(x) = 0

    f'(0) = 0 for all x, so it does exist.

    Yin

  • Ben
    Lv 4
    10 years ago

    It sure does:

    f(x)=0

    f(0)=0

    f(1)=0

    and so on. For every value of x, our output or y will be 0.

  • Grid
    Lv 7
    10 years ago

    Yes it does exist.

    f(x) = 0

    f'(x) = 0

    f'(0) = 0

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