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To Jews : Why does the Bible only forbid male homosexual acts ?

Leviticus 18:22 and 20:13 only mention male-on-male-sex. Same with Genesis 19 with Sodom and Gomorrah. Deuteronomy

and Kings mention sodomites or male cult prostitutes. According to Acharei Mot, lesbianism is condemned because it was one of the practices of the Egyptians, but lashes aren't given for it

because there is no Biblical prohibition nor a punishment and a woman is not forbidden from marrying a Jewish priest. Why is only male homosexuality forbidden ?

Update:

Why do people always say that Paul condemns lesbians ? I'm not one, but the Tanakh doesn't condemn them. e was schooled in the Tanakh I know. Unnatural sex can mean any number of things, like anal sex.

1 Corinthians only makes my point for me. (Men who lie with men, nothing about women lying with women).

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  • 7 years ago
    Favorite Answer

    Lesbianism is forbidden under the heading that the practices of the Egyptians are forbidden to Jews- these practices included lesbianism- See Rambam Mishneh Torah Issurei Bi'ah. This is based on Vayikra (Leviticus) 18:3, we are commanded:

    You shall not do as they do in the land of Egypt, where you dwelled, and you shall not do as they do in the land of Canaan, where I am bringing you. And you shall not go according to their established practices.

    The oral commentary in a halachic midrash (midrash is derivations from the verse- halachic ones refer to law based ones as opposed to allegory or expansions on the basic text) in Sifra 9:3

    Sifra (9:3) explains:

    Surely it could not be that you aren't to build buildings like them or plant crops in their way? Rather, the Torah says, "chukim" (established customs). This means only those things that they and their ancestors have decreed. And what are those? A man would take a man, a woman would take a woman, a man would take a woman and her daughter, and a woman would be taken by two men.

    So while you may not see the prohibition against lesbianism in the Torah, Jews who study the Torah with all its oral and written commentaries are well aware of the Torah prohibition. This law is written explicitly into the Shulkhan Aruch, in Even HaEzer seif 20:2

    As for polskajason's claim that it refers to cultic sex- that is modern attempt by Reform Judaism to wriggle out of an explicit Torha prohibition so they can allow the forbidden. They reject the actions and interpretations of 3500 years of Jews to try and rewrite it to allow them to do what they wish. It does not make it right, it just shows how desperate they are to try and justify modernising Judaism to suit themselves

    As for your quote from Christian scriptures- completely irrelevant to Jews and Judaism. It is clear to any Jew who has read Christian scriptures that Paul was ignorant of Judaism and Jewish for all his attempts to claim otherwise. Anything he said is completely irrelevant to Jews.

    edit: I have read about the daughters of Zelopahad, about how they inherited their father;s land and how about they were required to marry men of their tribe (Menasheh) so that the land of the tribe of Benyamin would not be reduced. Nothign there about sex, heterosexual or lesbian and completely irrelevant to this conversation.

    edit: Nope-they were NOT required to marry their cousins, they were required to marry ANY men from the tribe of Menasheh. Within that requirement they chose who to marry. It was not fixing any injustice and remains completely irrelevant to the discussion of lesbianism and how it is forbidden in the Torah!

    Source(s): Orthodox Jew; Reverend; Torah; Sifra, Rambam MIshneh Torah; Shulkhan Aruch
  • Moi
    Lv 7
    7 years ago

    Interestingly, female same-sex relations are not forbidden by the Torah. There is very little discussion of female homosexuality in the Talmud. The few sources that mention lesbian relations say that they do not disqualify a woman from certain privileges of the priesthood, because it is "merely licentiousness." There is a surprising lack of discussion of such issues as whether lesbianism would be grounds for divorcing a woman without her consent or without ketubah. Rambam asserted that lesbian practices are forbidden because it was a "practice of Egypt" and because it constituted rebelliousness.

    More here

    http://www.jewfaq.org/sex.htm#Homosexuality

  • JP
    Lv 7
    7 years ago

    Maybe because they are prohibiting what you note in Deuteronomy - that the prohibition is against cultic prostitution. The context of the prohibition is in the ritual practices of neighboring people, all of which was forbidden.

    Halakha (Jewish law) makes it a generalized prohibition against all same-gender sexual interaction, but I believe this is a misconstruction of what Torah actually prohibits.

    Genesis 19 is not commentary on homosexuality except to Christians; as it becomes clear when you read the rest of Tanakh, raping a man, especially a guest, was worse than raping a woman, probably because men were afforded a higher position in ancient societies than women.

    @kaganate: Yes, I'm aware that that's what the way Orthodox view things. Fortunately, the Orthodox view is not the only valid Jewish view of it.

    @allonyoav: Yes, that might very well be true. Reform Jews are more willing to reexamine texts and find another interpretation that is more humane and just. We know Orthodox Jews will stick to traditional interpretations regardless. Maybe you can read about the daughters of Zelophehad if you need to be reminded of a tradition that is clearly endorsed by Torah, but that the Orthodox are characteristically unable to embrace.

    @allonyoav: And yes, they were required to marry the sons of their uncles - BECAUSE THE PREVIOUS JUDGMENT CREATED AN INJUSTICE. One rectification for an injustice created another injustice...which had to be rectified, too. What injustice is created when two gay men have sex with one another? NONE.

    Source(s): Jewish
  • ?
    Lv 6
    7 years ago

    I can't speak on behalf of Jews. But from what I've seen when speaking to them, most of them prohibit homosexuality among both sexes like every other Abrahamic religion, although they are not as vocal about it, whereas at the very least, they seem to be on the fence about homosexuality, at least in regards to women.

    I think that "man" can often be translated to "mankind" given that it was a patriarchal culture back then and everyone would have probably been addressed as men.

  • 7 years ago

    Jewishly speaking, the Sodom and Gomorah story was not about sex.

    The townspeople wanted to rape the visitors to torture and humiliate them.

    Much like in modern prison culture and in some third world judicial systems, the ancient "sodomite" did not see the agressor as "gay".

    Regarding "cultic prostitutes" -- since these were not Jewish practices, any gender discreapncies are a question for the people who did them not for Jews.

    That said -- I am quite certain I have noted reference to female cult prostitutes as well. I have just never been interested in this issue -- and therefore never noted the citations.

    Oh -- yes, I noted the matter because I found it odd that Christian translations did not acknowledge them as cult prostitutes. They were translated as loose women.

    But they were most definitely there.

    There is a rabinic assumption that female same gender relations are prohibited by the Torah under the general rubric of "licentious practices of others" but there is uncertainty and therefore for legal clarity they are

    independently prohibited by rabinic injunction and in a Torah law society would be punished as a violation of a rabinic prohibition.

    ==

    To your question --

    "why did God command ... any distinctive Jewish law?"

    Because "you shall be a kingdom of priests, a nation set apart" (Exodus 19)

    The only person in the Tanakh who claimed to know the mind of God was Balaam - and in reality his donkey knew more about the spiritual world than he did.

    =====

    Why are you bringing in "New Testament" quotes to a question for Jews?

    =====

    @polskajason -

    I'm sorry, it is countertextual and has no basis in any commentary to interpret the prohibitions against Jewish male same gender sex as solely related to cultic sexuality.

    Those laws are quite clearly related to "secular" sex as well -- and have always been learned that way.

  • 7 years ago

    It is a principle, not a specific...It does apply to females...

    (1 Corinthians 6:9) What! Do YOU not know that unrighteous persons will not inherit God’s kingdom? Do not be misled. Neither fornicators, nor idolaters, nor adulterers, nor men kept for unnatural purposes, nor men who lie with men,

    UNRIGHTEOUS PERSONS....

    Source(s): NWT
  • BJ
    Lv 7
    7 years ago

    I believe the Apostle Paul mentions both (male & female) at:

    Romans 1:18-27

    That is why God gave them up to disgraceful sexual appetites, for both their females changed the natural use of themselves into one contrary to nature; and likewise even the males left the natural use of the female and became violently inflamed in their lust toward one another, males with males, working what is obscene.”

    Here Paul specifically condemned both male and female homosexuality. He condemned homosexual practices as unnatural and “obscene.”

  • 7 years ago

    Because it was written by a man maybe?

  • 7 years ago

    Girl-on-girl has always been popular with men ...

  • 7 years ago

    Two chicks is hot.

    Two guys is gross.

    One guy is gross.

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