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If f=ma, then would something accelerating at 1m/s from rest make more impact than something not accelerating at high velocities?
Say I were to hit a wooden plank and try to break. Here at two possible scenarios 1. I hit it at 1m/s^2 from 0m/s so by the time I hit the plank my velocity is 1m/s. 2. I strike it at 4m/s but 0m/s^2.
I mean common sense and my time in the universe tells me option two is more has a higher likelyhood to break planks. But F=MA says that since my acceleration is 0 then I would have no impact on the plank at all
1 Answer
- TechnobuffLv 75 years agoFavorite Answer
Let's assume your "something" is a hammer.
F = MA means the hammer needs force F to make IT accelerate. It has nothing to do with the strike force on your plank, what counts is the VELOCITY of the hammer that you accelerate it to. Because:
What DOES affect the strike force is the Velocity and Mass of your hammer. For which the formula is 1/2 (MV^2).
So, you apply force F enough to your hammer's Mass to accelerate IT to as great a Velocity as you can manage. That is what does the damage!
