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What did Jesus mean when He said 'I AM'?

11 Answers

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  • DP.
    Lv 6
    4 years ago
    Favorite Answer

    (1) Thanks to delusional else deceitful TERRY for provided the basis for demonstrating foolish JW thinking.

    Re BeDuhn that JWs like to quote regularly.... BeDuhn never claims to be a Hebrew scholar nor an expert on Jewish culture. His expertise is in Greek. Then even in the Greek scholarly community much of his ideas and claims, though respected, are not actually agreed with.

    Irrespective, here BeDuhn, comments on the Greek (his expertise) but then assumes the purpose of the Greek used (that's Jewish culture in which BeDuhn accepts he's not an expert) and relates to the Hebrew in the OT (again in which BeDuhn accepts he's not an expert). In other words, BeDuhn has little expertise to add to this dialogue but because HIS OPINION fits JWs view they like to quote him.

    Additionally, try asking Terry and his JW cohorts if they think BeDuhn is a good expert to quote from and the less dumb will not answer.. this is because they know two things about BeDuhn... i) that he's not a JW and does not believe in the bible (and if he's the custodian and pointer of truth why not?) ii) BeDuhn is scathing about JW translation in other areas. Here's an example ..""The inconsistency of NW translators in not using "Jehovah" in 2 Thessalonians 1:9, 1 Peter 2:3, and 1 Peter 3:15 shows that interpretation rather than a principle of translation is involved in deciding where to use"

    (2) Even TERRY agrees quotes BeDuhn "Before Abraham was, I am" is slavishly faithful to the literal meaning of the Greek” WOW WOW WOW. Here in TERRY’s own quote it says if we are going to be “slavishly faithful to the literal” – we should use “I am.” Now correct me if I’m wrong but don’t JWs often argue that they have to be “slavishly literal”? That’s why they argue Jesus is Michael – like He comes with the trumpet of the Archangel means Jesus is the Archangel!

    (3) Let’s take a look at page 467 of the 1969 Greek Interlinear used by the Watchtower Bible and Tract Society where The Watchtower's own interlinear translates John 8:58 as "I am" even though in the NWT it renders it as "I have been."

    It seems in JW land interpretation is fluid in nature as MISTAKES of the past are covered by new knowledge. Unfortunately this principle means that JWs today cannot claim absolute belief in anything as in the past they thought they had absolute truth only to discover error. What errors do JWs believe in today that they’ll discover tomorrow?

    (4) Whilst JWs usually insist on literal interpretation and here try to argue it shouldn’t be literal, they still ignore context – presumably because it doesn’t fit their belief.

    It was only after Jesus uttered these words that they picked up stones. In other words, it was these words that GREATLY offended them enough to try to kill Him… and who is this discourse with? The Pharisees.

    So the question that JWs cannot answer is why the Pharisees would be so offended instantly with these words so as to try to kill Jesus PUBLICALLY? (noting that they fully understood His popularity). The idea that Jesus was simply claiming to exist before Abraham would have been strange to their ears but it certainly wasn’t blasphemous. Indeed, they might even have thought that such a claim might mean Jesus was an angel or ambassador or prophet sent by God…. But they didn’t!

    The Pharisees were instantly enraged by these words by Jesus… enough to try to kill Him there and then…. And the ONLY logical conclusion is that they felt Jesus was not just making an incredible claim (to have existed before Abraham) but to be claiming to be God.

    (5) "ehyeh asher ehyeh" Terry likes to point out that in other parts of the OT, this is translated as “I will be…” and claims this shows the Ex 3:14 is mistranslated in most bibles. Unfortunately, for Terry, there is one uncontroversial fact that he chooses to ignore! In every part of the bible where this phrase is used it is used as a verb… you know a doing phrase applied to a person. In Ex 3:14 it’s not a verb and not a doing word. God says it is who He is! It’s who Moses should tell Pharaoh He is.

    Of course, JWs don’t want to descend into thinking at this level about this truth and prefer to stick in the nuances of translation, line up an “expert” or two that agrees with them and then has out the argument with Christians.

    The reality is that “I will be ..” makes no sense at Ex 3:14! In effect, JWs are arguing that God says His defining character, the one that He wants recorded and publicised to Pharaoh (and the world beyond) is that He will be. In other words, His character is not about the present or the past but about the future. God even makes this clear in the very next verse…” God also said to Moses, ‘Say to the Israelites, “The Lord,[d] the God of your fathers – the God of Abraham, the God of Isaac and the God of Jacob – has sent me to you.” It’s clear believing this is about the future his is in direct contrast to the theme of the bible and how we can rely on God and His character BECAUSE of the past. More than that the phrase “I am..” has such deep and meaningful resonance because it encapsulates the past, present and future and wonderfully sums up the fact that God needs nothing… He is the great “I am…”

    Indeed, the context makes it clear Moses understood this. If Moses had accept the phrase to mean “I will be…” then how could not be puzzled as to how “will be..” would work with Pharaoh or indeed what it really meant to him then? “Will be..” is future and without clarification on when or what He “will be..” it’s meaningless. Again Moses was at all thinking this way the summation of the past in the next verse makes it absolutely clear!

    In summary it's really sad the lengths that JWs will go to try to not accept the truth and how ironic it is that they desperately resort to quoting "experts" that don't agree with their faith to do it!

    The Jews of the day clearly understood what Jesus was claiming and responded to it!

  • Anonymous
    4 years ago

    They asked Jesus which one of you is Jesus and Jesus said I am.

    The notable thing however is that apparently Jesus used the word yhwh. Name.

    I am who I shall prove to be this resulted in the Jews falling to the ground because nobody spoke god's name in those days it became a superstition that if you did not say god's name he would forget about you and not punish you for sin!

  • Anonymous
    4 years ago

    That's a Popeye line!

  • Gloria
    Lv 7
    4 years ago

    Anyone with a little sense of the English vernacular spoken in 1611 will know that John 8:58 Before Abraham was, I am means I am before Abraham or Before Abraham existed, I exist. By their own admission Americans speak American and the people of England speak English.

  • ?
    Lv 6
    4 years ago

    Reality--In the ot--I am that I am = error the Hebrew scholars say--I will be what I will be is correct.

    Jesus just answered the Pharisees honestly--he lived before Abraham--- certain false religions try to say like the Pharisees who were lying, that Jesus was claiming to be God---But he wasn't. I am that I am-- does not belong in the ot. There are many errors in trinity translation.

  • ?
    Lv 6
    4 years ago

    He was and is God, the second Person of the Godhead, equal to the Father in every way.

  • ?
    Lv 4
    4 years ago

    That was reference to exodus. Almighty God. He was saying he is God

  • Gary B
    Lv 7
    4 years ago

    He MEANT that He Is God.

    "YHWH" (God;s Name) means"I AM".

  • G C
    Lv 7
    4 years ago

    It means He is God.

  • Anonymous
    4 years ago

    nothing. jesus never existed.

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