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If a town had a population of 22 people for census purposes, would the town have the same number of people for federal tax purposes?
Say in 1803, a town in SC had 8 white men, 6 women, 2 indentured servants, 3 non-taxed Indians, and 10 slaves, their total population for the census would have been 22.
Would the town have the same number of people, less people, or more people for FEDERAL TAX PURPOSES?
Where in the constitution can I find this?
Thank you!!
5 Answers
- StephenWeinsteinLv 72 years agoFavorite Answer
For a direct tax (based on population), which is described in the Constitution, but doesn't actually exist, yes, it would be the same.
The federal taxes that do exist aren't based on population, so it's not really any specific number for tax purposes.
- GypsyfishLv 72 years ago
Towns don't pay federal taxes based on the number of people. People pay federal taxes based n their individual income. So your question makes no sense.
- Anonymous2 years ago
fed tax in 1803 was just on booze . no income tax .
- 2 years ago
The most that the constitution says about taxes is that Congress alone has the power to levy taxes. A later amendment gave Congress the power to tax income. That's all there is to it. I don't rightly know what you mean by "federal tax purposes."
