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IF the Bible condones brutality to slaves, then please explain?

1. Why is killing a slave a capital crime? Exodus 21:12, 20

2. Why is an injured slave set free? Exodus 21:26-27

3. Why can a slave escape to safety with no penalty? Deuteronomy 23:15-16

4. Why was the Bible's laws for slavery so radically different than that of the heathen's Code of Hammurabi? E.g. Genesis 30:3, which was not a law given at Sinai, and Hammurabi's code §146

5. Why was a female slave allowed to leave if she didn't want to get married, and so displeased her master? Exodus 21:8

6. Why was a female slave required to be treated like a daughter if she married a son? Exodus 21:9

7. Why is love the commandment for both the Hebrew and the stranger? Leviticus 19:18 Deuteronomy 10:19

Wouldn't a slave master be very foolish to risk death, or to lose his slave and his money (for he is his money Exodus 21:21)?

10 Answers

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  • ?
    Lv 7
    1 year ago

    Baby steps ... baby steps!

    Source(s): www.askmeaboutgod.org
  • Anonymous
    1 year ago

    How should we know why the book you worship contradicts itself in so many places?

  • 1 year ago

    It amuses me when Christians try to justify slavery. The bottom line is, no human being should have the right to own another human being. 

  • Anonymous
    1 year ago

    Moral cults led by GOOD deities don't have slaves in the first place.

    Christianity is not moral, or good.

    But boy are you people trying to convince everyone you are. Not sketchy at all.

  • Huh?
    Lv 7
    1 year ago

    How is owning another human as property not a brutality? How do you twist your own moral compass to justify biblical immorality?

  • 1 year ago

    it does not condone brutality to slaves

  • Liz
    Lv 6
    1 year ago

    Laws governing slave-master relationships. Among the Israelites the status of the Hebrew slave differed from that of a slave who was a foreigner, alien resident, or settler. Whereas the non-Hebrew remained the property of the owner and could be passed on from father to son (Le 25:44-46), the Hebrew slave was to be released in the seventh year of his servitude or in the Jubilee year, depending upon which came first. During the time of his servitude the Hebrew slave was to be treated as a hired laborer. (Ex 21:2; Le 25:10; De 15:12) A Hebrew who sold himself into slavery to an alien resident, to a member of an alien resident’s family, or to a settler could be repurchased at any time, either by himself or by one having the right of repurchase. The redemption price was based on the number of years remaining until the Jubilee year or until the seventh year of servitude. (Le 25:47-52; De 15:12) When granting a Hebrew slave his freedom, the master was to give him a gift to assist him in getting a good start as a freedman. (De 15:13-15) If a slave had come in with a wife, the wife went out with him. However, if the master had given him a wife (evidently a foreign woman who would not be entitled to freedom in the seventh year of servitude), she and any children by her remained the property of the master

  • Anonymous
    1 year ago

    Christians follow Christ, not the Old Testament. Maybe ask who still believes the stuff you are asking about.

  • 1 year ago

    I notice that "the World" complains about the Bible including things about slavery in ancient times, while there is slavery in modern times and the complainers are completely ignorant of it and aren't doing anything about it. Such noble chivalry!

    Slavery 2020

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    Source(s): bisexual Christian
  • 1 year ago

    Isn't it interesting that all those passages are from the Tanakh and not the New Testament? It's almost as if Christianity was in collusion with an oppressive regime which approved of slavery isn't it?

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