Robert F

I am sending out a video signal over rgbhv bnc cable. I have an rgbhv bnc to vga cable, but my understanding is that this cable is intended to take a vga signal and split it to rgbhv. Do I need a converter to go in the reverse direction? I see that such converters exist - e.g. Kramer 15-pin HD to 5 BNC Bi-directional Format - but not sure if I need it or not.

Hi there,

I'm an expat who arrived overseas at the end of September 2007. I'm planning to file form 2350 to request an extension to file my taxes, in the hopes that I will be granted the extension and can qualify for the physical presence test (330 days in foreign country) before end of September 2008. I'm thinking of requesting the extension until October 15, 2008 - the date of the standard 6 month extension to file. My questions are the following:

(i) If granted the extension, my understanding is that I will qualify in 2007 for the foreign income exclusion (f2555), despite the fact that most of the 330 day period is in 2008. Is this correct?

(ii) What are my chances of being granted the extension via form 2350? Anybody out there ever received this extension for this reason?

Thanks for any and all answers!

Hi there,

I'm filling out form 2555, and I get all the way done with the form and it looks like I'm going to be able to exclude my foreign earned income... but then I get hit with Line 44!! It says (I think) that I need to deduct my moving expenses from my foreign earned income exclusion.... is this really how it works? So that in essence, I am able to deduct foreign earned income less moving expenses - and I can never arrive at a solution where I deduct BOTH foreign earned income AND moving expenses?! I was hoping to deduct plane tickets, etc. for the move - but I'm no longer clear if I can really deduct those expenses, or if they just get allocated to foreign earned income and fall by the wayside via Form 2555 Line 44. Anyone out there with a CPA or 2555 experience, I would love a little advice! Thanks!

I heard through the grapevine that someone from GB was in the U.S. and had a mandatory HIV test. My understanding is that subsequent to the test (and independent of the result - the test was negative) his health insurance premiums went up. In effect, the individual believes that the fact of having had an HIV test increased his premiums - e.g. as the test may have been a risk factor indicator to the insurance company. I am wondering if it is legal in the U.S. to use the simple fact of having had an HIV test as the basis for risk determination and adjustment of health insurance premiums. Thanks for your insights!