?

So, I know I've read about this question before, but I'm not sure if I got the exact answer I was looking for. So we always hear that things like diabetes type II, and obesity have a genetic component to them, as well as environmental and other factors at play. My question is, if I have absolutely zero genetic contributing factors for developing T2DM, but due to my diet, lifestyle or whatever other factors, I get it anyway, would that mean that my children would be genetically predisposed to getting T2DM down the line, and if so, why/how?

This is a hypothetical situation, im just curious

Or are they just interested in making money off the publics perception on what "homeopathy" actually is

I'm not asking because I want to try. I work at a pharmacy and with the influx of people obviously buying it for recretional purposes I was wondering what people get out of it and what kind of feeling they are getting out of it. It just seems stupid.

So, I know type A blood has antibodies against type B and vice versa, but my question is.... If someone has type A blood, how did they get antibodies for type B blood if they were never exposed to it before, as usually antibodies come about after an exposure to something.

How do i get my apps transferred to my other computer without having to rebuy them, and also how do I get my calender to stay on my ipod while trying to switch from one computer to another.

Kind of a stats question, just seeing what people say.

Youre on a game show, theres three doors. One door has a car behind it, the other two doors have nothing.

You do not know what door has the car, but the host does.

You pick a door, and before its opened, the host opens one of the doors you did not pick and and shows you that the car is not there and gives you the open to switch.

Now, statistically, would it be better for you to keep the door you picked, or switch to the remaining door, or would it not matter at all?

warners had a pretty terrible preseason.. but im afraid to start palmer and have him go off