Mrs. V

Can a restrained person stop payment on all bills, mortgage, utilities, etc. when it says in restraining order "Neither party shall transfer, borrow against, sell, hide, or get rid or or destroy any property, including animals, except in the normal course of business or for necessities of life."

Restrained spouse has stopped paying mortgage and all other bills. The restrained person bought a truck for his wife in both their names. Then took her off the account and told her "through the grapevine" that she has 'til the end of the month to pay. If he purposely stops paying does that count as a violation as it is worded above?

Since his arrest, wife has been staying at the house. No one knows where he is but he has stopped paying on everything. He controlled all finances, all outings, activities, for 8+ years. She was not allowed to go to church she wanted to go to, speak to or see her family, or get a job. She has no income, no real resources of any kind. I feel like its almost an indirect threat (which I know isn't anything you can call the cops about) but like he's purposely cutting her off because he knows she doesn't have anything and is wondering if he can wait her out til she goes back to him or just wait til HIS house is foreclosed on and SHE is kicked out...but that's me rambling...back to the actual question: Is stopping payment on all bills/property/etc a violation in anyway?

Thanks in advance for anyone who takes the time to answer. Running out of resources here. Doing my best to help from across the country.

Can a restrained person stop payment on all bills, mortgage, utilities, etc. when it says in restraining order "Neither party shall transfer, borrow against, sell, hide, or get rid or or destroy any property, including animals, except in the normal course of business or for necessities of life."

Restrained spouse has stopped paying mortgage and all other bills. The restrained person bought a truck for his wife in both their names. Then took her off the account and told her "through the grapevine" that she has 'til the end of the month to pay. If he purposely stops paying does that count as a violation as it is worded above?

Since his arrest, wife has been staying at the house. No one knows where he is but he has stopped paying on everything. He controlled all finances, all outings, activities, for 8+ years. She was not allowed to go to church she wanted to go to, speak to or see her family, or get a job. She has no income, no real resources of any kind. I feel like its almost an indirect threat (which I know isn't anything you can call the cops about) but like he's purposely cutting her off because he knows she doesn't have anything and is wondering if he can wait her out til she goes back to him or just wait til HIS house is foreclosed on and SHE is kicked out...but that's me rambling...back to the actual question: Is stopping payment on all bills/property/etc a violation in anyway?

Thanks in advance for anyone who takes the time to answer. Running out of resources here. Doing my best to help from across the country.

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Can a restrained person stop payment on all bills, mortgage, utilities, etc. when it says in restraining order "Neither party shall transfer, borrow against, sell, hide, or get rid or or destroy any property, including animals, except in the normal course of business or for necessities of life."

Restrained spouse has stopped paying mortgage and all other bills. The restrained person bought a truck for his wife in both their names. Then took her off the account and told her "through the grapevine" that she has 'til the end of the month to pay. If he purposely stops paying does that count as a violation as it is worded above?

Since his arrest, wife has been staying at the house. No one knows where he is but he has stopped paying on everything. He controlled all finances, all outings, activities, for 8+ years. She was not allowed to go to church she wanted to go to, speak to or see her family, or get a job. She has no income, no real resources of any kind. I feel like its almost an indirect threat (which I know isn't anything you can call the cops about) but like he's purposely cutting her off because he knows she doesn't have anything and is wondering if he can wait her out til she goes back to him or just wait til HIS house is foreclosed on and SHE is kicked out...but that's me rambling...back to the actual question: Is stopping payment on all bills/property/etc a violation in anyway?

Thanks in advance for anyone who takes the time to answer. Running out of resources here. Doing my best to help from across the country.

Can a restrained person stop payment on all bills, mortgage, utilities, etc. when it says in restraining order "Neither party shall transfer, borrow against, sell, hide, or get rid or or destroy any property, including animals, except in the normal course of business or for necessities of life."

Restrained spouse has stopped paying mortgage and all other bills. The restrained person bought a truck for his wife in both their names. Then took her off the account and told her "through the grapevine" that she has 'til the end of the month to pay. If he purposely stops paying does that count as a violation as it is worded above?

Since his arrest, wife has been staying at the house. No one knows where he is but he has stopped paying on everything. He controlled all finances, all outings, activities, for 8+ years. She was not allowed to go to church she wanted to go to, speak to or see her family, or get a job. She has no income, no real resources of any kind. I feel like its almost an indirect threat (which I know isn't anything you can call the cops about) but like he's purposely cutting her off because he knows she doesn't have anything and is wondering if he can wait her out til she goes back to him or just wait til HIS house is foreclosed on and SHE is kicked out...but that's me rambling...back to the actual question: Is stopping payment on all bills/property/etc a violation in anyway?

Thanks in advance for anyone who takes the time to answer. Running out of resources here. Doing my best to help from across the country.

My husband & I moved to Virginia less than a year ago to a small apartment. We are looking to buy our first home when our lease was up but were told by some friends that if you relocate to Virginia & find a home to purchase within your first year you can get out of your rental agreement.

Is this true & if so what are the requirements other than purchasing in the first year?

Any help is appreciated.

My daughter is 6 months old now & is just too big & strong to be [or stay] swaddled but she has the hardest time falling asleep without it. I've tried putting her to bed without it but find myself in the room for about an hour if I'm lucky trying to get her to fall asleep. Mostly the problem is that she wiggles so much. She will twitch and startle herself, waking back up again. I can get her to sleep if I rock her but I don't like that because she will get used to me rocking her and wake up when I lay her down...So what did you mamas & daddy's do to get your babies sleeping?!?!?!?!

*Aside from crying it out...I won't do that EVER*

I usually use dish soap & VERY hot water but I was curious what some of your ways were. Maybe I'll find something better.

Thanks in advance to those that take the time to help! =)

I have a 5 1/2 month old & that used to take to other people like she had known them all along but now aside from crying when she can't see my husband or I, she cries when other people hold her. Could she be going through that phase now? I thought they didn't go through this until like 7 months...