Colt

Corrective rape is a phenomenon based largely around either a heterosexual man raping a lesbian in an attempt to turn her straight, or, less commonly, a heterosexual woman raping a gay man in an attempt to turn him gay.

Obviously, this is all very wrong and terrible, and it doesn't even mention asexuals getting raped to be turned sexual, but I was wondering how it would happen the other way around?

A gay man rapes a straight man to turn him gay.

A lesbian rapes a straight woman to turn her gay.

Would this still be corrective rape? Or would it be considered something else?

I'm a straight man, so I haven't done any of this to other straight men. And I have never raped a lesbian, because I'm not homophobic and I'm engaged to the most perfect (straight) woman in the world. And no gay man has done this to me, I'm just curious if it would be branded "corrective rape", just rape, or something else, because I'm genuinely curious. I'm not a law expert or anything, so I'm not quite sure. If someone could tell me, this would be a quench of my thirst for knowledge.

I'm a straight guy, so maybe I don't have the best judgement, but I personally cannot believe that all those women married him for love. And they called his wife, Anne, ugly? Seen Henry VIII?

So my question is:

How did Henry VIII get so many wives when he was so ugly? If it was for money and power, then yeah, I guess, but I feel like there would have been better ways to do that.

Queen Elizabeth the First was the one who remained a lifelong virgin. Fair enough. But then Queen Elizabeth II's mother, Elizabeth Bowes-Lyon, was a Queen too. And her name was Elizabeth. I know she married in, but the literal definition for a queen is either a woman who inherited a throne through blood (archaically with no brothers, but these days like, I mean, Charlotte is in front of Louis so if George dies or abdicates and never has a kid, I mean... All Hail Queen Charlotte one day), or a wife of a king. Elizabeth Bowes-Lyon married George the Sixth in 1923, and their daughter began reigning in 1952, so Elizabeth Bowes-Lyon was Queen Elizabeth before her daughter ever was, so surely it would be:

1. Queen Elizabeth I - Virgin Queen; Queen by blood (lived 1533-1603).

2. Queen Elizabeth II - George VI's wife; Queen by marriage (lived 1900-2002).

3. Queen Elizabeth III - George VI's daughter; Queen by blood (lived 1926-present).

That would be a logical standpoint, wouldn't it? So why isn't the current reigning monarch "Queen Elizabeth III"? Surely her mum was "Queen Elizabeth II", since she was the 2ND QUEEN to be named ELIZABETH.

Asexuality is simply not having a sexuality, meaning that it is not a sexuality.

Women are not losing interest in us lol what are you guys on?