tim s

Since marriages are becoming less and less popular as men exercise their right not to engage in an inherently corrupt legal system. Since the Civil marriage contract is wholly unfair to their male congregation. Since the divorce rate in California is now 76%.

Shouldn't the Catholic church take a stand against the perversion of the institution of marriage by lobbying for a conscientious "exemption" from the civil contract at least in the state of California?

Shouldnt the church do this for the protection of Fathers and their children? Is it not a sin to ignore the abuse of families?

http://www.the-spearhead.com/2010/10/10/nature-inc...

Since the way marriage as instituted in California is not a godly institution.

It is widely recognized as entirely unjust for the men.

1) Women initiate divorce about 76% of the time, without cause, because it is profitable for them to do so.

2) 76% of marriages in Northern California end in divorce.

3) The California government makes a practice of concealing divorce statistics to hide the true nature of the marriage contract.

4) The child support is essentially a form of indentured servitude. The government automatically garnishes 80% or more of your wages without a trial.

5) The child support is not used to provide for the children but rather is simply a payout to the wife who broke the marrriage contract.

6) Alimony can be 50% of a mans income for the rest of his life, and alimony is always awarded automatically pendente lite.

7) There is no protection for the man from unscrupulous lawyers who can easily and often do bankrupt him with pointless legal action in order to force him to agree to unfavorable terms.

8) Children have no protection from the financial fallout from divorce

Considering this, shouldnt all the churches consider a moratorium on marriages, as the way the state of california has perverted the institution it is now unchristian and even inhumane to men.

I live in San Jose California. When I bought my house, the mortgagor would only approve if my wife signed an Interspousal Transfer Deed (I think this is a common occurence). My wife was really unhappy, but the Realtor convinced us that is wouldn't make any difference in our ownership if we got divorced.

My wife was really pushy about me adding her to the title, and I frankly got suspicious and never did, and sure enough, 4 years later she is divorcing me. I always paid the mortgage out of my very separate checking account. Tell me, is this house separate property in my name?

Fyi, the grant deed form is a very standard one which grants full title to myself.

Thanks in advance