Philip II was a bad ruler. He screwed up the economy, lost the armada, imposed theocracy, and especially was bad to the poor majority.
The Netherlands successfully revolted against Philip II. They weakened him. So why didn't the Spanish do the same?
Cabal
Favorite Answer
It isn't the people who revolted against a king, it usually was their own nolblemen. Philip II held his with an iron fist in a glove of steel. Sharp steel. He also had enough gold to ensure he had a big army.
ktrb
Because the Spanish had closer ties to Phillip; his family had ruled them for several hundred years. The Netherlands were a more recent addition to the Spanish empire, and didn't have the same sense of loyalty.
janniel
Because he held absolute sovereignty and for all his faults, the only other power-brokers, namely the aristocracy and the church, were beholden to him. The Church in particular as he was an enthusiastic supporter of the Spanish Inquisition, anti-heretical and he contributed to the Holy League against the Turks.