How can Democrats argue that the "Rich" don't pay their "Fair Share"...?
yet at the same complain about how tax refunds only help the wealthy?
The only way tax refunds can disproportionately go to the "Rich" is if that's where the tax payments came from in the first place. That's simple Arithmetic. If Truth and Reason have any value in this discussion, then one of these complaints has to be wrong. Otherwise, it's just shameful demagoguery posing as compassion.
Little Princess2011-08-19T00:18:09Z
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You are going on the false assumption that they're driven by logic. They can argue the the rich don't pay their fair share because they want to instill an aura of class warfare that they can then exploit and turn into votes and support.
Simply because most "Rich" people who invest their money are not earning wages, and therefor do not pay income tax on their money. They pay capital gains which is taxed at a lower rate than income. So a person making money from investments might pay say 15% instead of 35% which some not so rich people find themselves in the higher tax bracket because they are earning wages, while the investor is taxed differently.
Math isn't their strong suit. Otherwise, they never would have created Fannie Mae. Of course you can't simultaneously pay less taxes and receive more refunds, but you have to think about it to understand that. Until then, it sounds good and gets an emotional response out of people..