Why Does Jehovah's Name Never Appear in the Greek New Testament, but it's in the New Testament of the NWT?
I'd greatly appreciate any educated input from any Jehovah Witnesses out there. The NWT should be commended for having the Tetra restored in the Old Testament. Jehovah's name appears thousands of times in the Hebrew Scriptures. Bravo. However, There are over 5,000 Greek manuscript copies that we have in our possession today that make up our New Testament. *None* of them have the name of Jehovah in them, yet the NWT translators took it upon themselves to add it to their Bible over 230 times without any Biblical merit to do so.
Why did they do this?
Okay, I can understand if they were quoting from the Hebrew Scriptures. But the Hebrew Scriptures were only quoted 112 times. That means that they added the name of Jehovah 125 times without any quotation support from the Hebrew Scriptures. Why? Furthermore, they don't follow their own 'rule' every time. For example, if one looks at Phillippians 2:10,11 it is referring to Isaiah 45:23. What's shocking about this passage is that it says that *Jesus* is Jehovah, so I can see why they didn't agree with that. But what's more is in their 1950's version of the NWT, this cross reference to Isaiah was there. In the newer ones, it's taken out. Why?
If one simply looks at the Kingdom Interlinear, it clearly shows the word "Lord", not "Jehovah." I've read many publications of theirs saying their reasons why they add it, but they don't satisfy me. They say that the Greek Septuagint had the Tetra in it. I don't understand why they use that reason... it's rather moot because it only appears in the Old Testament. The Greek Septuagint New Testament *never* has the name Jehovah in it.
They also say that they use the Hebrew versions as a resource to adding the name, but there's a few problems with this. First, the Hebrew versions are just as guilty as the NWT for adding the name when it doesn't belong. The earliest hebrew versions that they quote from are of the original Greek Scriptures translated into Hebrew done by Elias Hutter of Nuremberg in 1599. So these Hebrew versions also came from the Greek. And were made *way* after the days of the apostles. So why do they quote these and not the original Greek like they promised they would? The translators are giving the Hebrew versions more credit than the 5,000 original Greek manuscripts. So does this mean that if the Hebrew versions are correct, then the Greek copies are in error? But again, it doesn't matter because these Hebrew verisons were translated from the Greek. Second, there's another huge problem with this. The Hebrew versions are absolutely in favor of Jesus being Jehovah. These Hebrew versions were translated in a way to covert Jews to Christianity. They are hard core Trinitarians. In many places, their Hebrew version literally reads 'Jesus is Jehovah.' Why can they pick and choose what they want from these versions and not be consistent, and leave out the fact that they're quoting from Bibles clearly for the Diety of Christ?
Another question in my head- the translators say one of the reasons why the name doesn't appear in the Greek is because of apostasy in the early church. Even though there is no proof of this, they use George Howard's *theory* about how there was a conspiracy to remove the name. However, Howard himself says this is a highly unpopular theory. Not only that, but how is it even possible for them to track down *thousands* of copies of the original Greek from every part of the continent without not even *one* shred of papyrus that even ushers the name of Jehovah on it? Plus, it's highly disturbing to me to think that if they could omit Jehovah's name from the NT, what else did they damage?
Though he's not a biblical scholar, not even Jason BeDuhn agrees with their adding the name of Jehovah in his book 'Truth in Translation.' There are no Biblical scholars that favor the name of Jehovah being in the NT. Even the Watchtower itself admits the name never appears in the Greek. (look at the Divine Name That Will Endure Forever.)
So why did the translators of the NWT add it?
It's ironic because it seems they've done to the NT what they claim happened to the OT except backwards. It was changed in the OT. It was added in the NT.
I very much value your own thoughts. I've read pretty much all the Watchtower publications out there on this, so if possible, could you please share your own authentic research and ideas on this? Or maybe some other sources other than the watchtower that could verify your beliefs? Thank you very much.
Also, I might add that I have done research on this 'Divine Name King James Version' of the Bible. I have ordered one. I am happy they restored the name. However, it seems fishy that their publishers have remained annonymous, as are the translators of the NWT. Even if the DNKJV adds Jehovah's name to their NT, it *still* gives them no Biblical merit to do so according to every Biblical scholar out there, and the Christian Greek scriptures themselves. *No* Biblical scholar supports this. So they'd be just as guilty as the translators of the NWT for not sticking to the original Greek.
As far as Phillipians 2: 10,11- when this verse was written, the writer was quoting from a Hebrew passage
Also, I might add that I have done research on this 'Divine Name King James Version' of the Bible. I have ordered one. I am happy they restored the name. However, it seems fishy that their publishers have remained annonymous, as are the translators of the NWT. Even if the DNKJV adds Jehovah's name to their NT, it *still* gives them no Biblical merit to do so according to every Biblical scholar out there, and the Christian Greek scriptures themselves. *No* Biblical scholar supports this. So they'd be just as guilty as the translators of the NWT for not sticking to the original Greek.
As far as Phillipians 2: 10,11- when this verse was written, the writer was quoting from a Hebrew passage
As far as Phillipians 2: 10,11- when this verse was written, the writer was quoting from a Hebrew passage
As far as Phillipians 2: 10,11- when this verse was written, the writer was quoting from a Hebrew passage
As far as Phillipians 2: 10,11- when this verse was written, the writer was quoting from a Hebrew passage
I don't know why it's not letting me add detail. Sorry for the mess.
But he's quoting Isaiah 45:23. The NWT had the cross reference to Isaiah correctly there at Phillipians 2:11. Isaiah 45:23 says that every knee will bow and every tongue will swear to Jehovah. In Phillipians it says that every knee will bow and every tongue will confess to Jesus as Lord. According to their rule, they said they will render 'Lord' as Jehovah when quoting from the Hebrew scriptures. So that means the 'Lord' they're speaking of in verse 11 *must* be Jehovah according to this rule. They follow it at Romans 14:11, but not at Phillipians 2:11. But either way, don't you think the million dollar question is *why* they removed this cross reference to Isaiah 45:23 from the newer NWT in the first place?