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Why Does Jehovah's Name Never Appear in the Greek New Testament, but it's in the New Testament of the NWT?
I'd greatly appreciate any educated input from any Jehovah Witnesses out there. The NWT should be commended for having the Tetra restored in the Old Testament. Jehovah's name appears thousands of times in the Hebrew Scriptures. Bravo. However, There are over 5,000 Greek manuscript copies that we have in our possession today that make up our New Testament. *None* of them have the name of Jehovah in them, yet the NWT translators took it upon themselves to add it to their Bible over 230 times without any Biblical merit to do so.
Why did they do this?
Okay, I can understand if they were quoting from the Hebrew Scriptures. But the Hebrew Scriptures were only quoted 112 times. That means that they added the name of Jehovah 125 times without any quotation support from the Hebrew Scriptures. Why? Furthermore, they don't follow their own 'rule' every time. For example, if one looks at Phillippians 2:10,11 it is referring to Isaiah 45:23. What's shocking about this passage is that it says that *Jesus* is Jehovah, so I can see why they didn't agree with that. But what's more is in their 1950's version of the NWT, this cross reference to Isaiah was there. In the newer ones, it's taken out. Why?
If one simply looks at the Kingdom Interlinear, it clearly shows the word "Lord", not "Jehovah." I've read many publications of theirs saying their reasons why they add it, but they don't satisfy me. They say that the Greek Septuagint had the Tetra in it. I don't understand why they use that reason... it's rather moot because it only appears in the Old Testament. The Greek Septuagint New Testament *never* has the name Jehovah in it.
They also say that they use the Hebrew versions as a resource to adding the name, but there's a few problems with this. First, the Hebrew versions are just as guilty as the NWT for adding the name when it doesn't belong. The earliest hebrew versions that they quote from are of the original Greek Scriptures translated into Hebrew done by Elias Hutter of Nuremberg in 1599. So these Hebrew versions also came from the Greek. And were made *way* after the days of the apostles. So why do they quote these and not the original Greek like they promised they would? The translators are giving the Hebrew versions more credit than the 5,000 original Greek manuscripts. So does this mean that if the Hebrew versions are correct, then the Greek copies are in error? But again, it doesn't matter because these Hebrew verisons were translated from the Greek. Second, there's another huge problem with this. The Hebrew versions are absolutely in favor of Jesus being Jehovah. These Hebrew versions were translated in a way to covert Jews to Christianity. They are hard core Trinitarians. In many places, their Hebrew version literally reads 'Jesus is Jehovah.' Why can they pick and choose what they want from these versions and not be consistent, and leave out the fact that they're quoting from Bibles clearly for the Diety of Christ?
Another question in my head- the translators say one of the reasons why the name doesn't appear in the Greek is because of apostasy in the early church. Even though there is no proof of this, they use George Howard's *theory* about how there was a conspiracy to remove the name. However, Howard himself says this is a highly unpopular theory. Not only that, but how is it even possible for them to track down *thousands* of copies of the original Greek from every part of the continent without not even *one* shred of papyrus that even ushers the name of Jehovah on it? Plus, it's highly disturbing to me to think that if they could omit Jehovah's name from the NT, what else did they damage?
Though he's not a biblical scholar, not even Jason BeDuhn agrees with their adding the name of Jehovah in his book 'Truth in Translation.' There are no Biblical scholars that favor the name of Jehovah being in the NT. Even the Watchtower itself admits the name never appears in the Greek. (look at the Divine Name That Will Endure Forever.)
So why did the translators of the NWT add it?
It's ironic because it seems they've done to the NT what they claim happened to the OT except backwards. It was changed in the OT. It was added in the NT.
I very much value your own thoughts. I've read pretty much all the Watchtower publications out there on this, so if possible, could you please share your own authentic research and ideas on this? Or maybe some other sources other than the watchtower that could verify your beliefs? Thank you very much.
Also, I might add that I have done research on this 'Divine Name King James Version' of the Bible. I have ordered one. I am happy they restored the name. However, it seems fishy that their publishers have remained annonymous, as are the translators of the NWT. Even if the DNKJV adds Jehovah's name to their NT, it *still* gives them no Biblical merit to do so according to every Biblical scholar out there, and the Christian Greek scriptures themselves. *No* Biblical scholar supports this. So they'd be just as guilty as the translators of the NWT for not sticking to the original Greek.
As far as Phillipians 2: 10,11- when this verse was written, the writer was quoting from a Hebrew passage
Also, I might add that I have done research on this 'Divine Name King James Version' of the Bible. I have ordered one. I am happy they restored the name. However, it seems fishy that their publishers have remained annonymous, as are the translators of the NWT. Even if the DNKJV adds Jehovah's name to their NT, it *still* gives them no Biblical merit to do so according to every Biblical scholar out there, and the Christian Greek scriptures themselves. *No* Biblical scholar supports this. So they'd be just as guilty as the translators of the NWT for not sticking to the original Greek.
As far as Phillipians 2: 10,11- when this verse was written, the writer was quoting from a Hebrew passage
As far as Phillipians 2: 10,11- when this verse was written, the writer was quoting from a Hebrew passage
As far as Phillipians 2: 10,11- when this verse was written, the writer was quoting from a Hebrew passage
As far as Phillipians 2: 10,11- when this verse was written, the writer was quoting from a Hebrew passage
I don't know why it's not letting me add detail. Sorry for the mess.
But he's quoting Isaiah 45:23. The NWT had the cross reference to Isaiah correctly there at Phillipians 2:11. Isaiah 45:23 says that every knee will bow and every tongue will swear to Jehovah. In Phillipians it says that every knee will bow and every tongue will confess to Jesus as Lord. According to their rule, they said they will render 'Lord' as Jehovah when quoting from the Hebrew scriptures. So that means the 'Lord' they're speaking of in verse 11 *must* be Jehovah according to this rule. They follow it at Romans 14:11, but not at Phillipians 2:11. But either way, don't you think the million dollar question is *why* they removed this cross reference to Isaiah 45:23 from the newer NWT in the first place?
32 Answers
- peacelilyLv 79 years agoFavorite Answer
If Jehovah's Witnesses REALLY believe that Jesus would've gotten a pat on the back and "Nice comments, brother" after uttering the divine name out loud while reading Isaiah from the scroll in the synagogue, they need to do a little more research into this period of Jewish history. Most commentaries say the Day of Atonement was the only time God's name was spoken in the Sanctuary/Temple by this time. However, the Mishnah records that God's divine name was pronounced in the final benediction for the twice daily Tamid liturgy in the Sanctuary "as it is written, but in the provinces by an epithet" (Mishnah: Tamid 7:2F). The Day of Atonement was the only time outside of the priestly benediction when God's covenant name was invoked. The divine name was spoken a second time in the Day of Atonement ritual when the High Priest made his confession over the second goat (Mishnah: Yoma 6:2). All scholarly sources agree that the name was not tolerated to be spoken by anyone other than the High Priest. Had Jesus spoken the name, they would have picked up stones, not patted him on the back!
The Watchtower's Divine Name brochure acknowledges this on p. 14, "Some believe that God's name passed out of everyday use well before Jesus' time. But there is strong evidence that the high priest continued to pronounce it at religious services at the temple—particularly on the day of Atonement—right up until the temple was destroyed in 70 C.E."
That's interesting that the cross-reference from Phil. 2:10-11 to Isa. 45:23 was removed in the later editions of the NWT. You're right; I just checked the large reference edition, and it's not even in there. That made me curious, because I know that Hebrews 1:10-12 is a quote from Psalm 102:25-27. The same thing apparently happened with these verses. The 1950 NWT lists Psalm 102:25 as a cross-reference to Hebrews 1:10 and Psalm 102:26 as a cross-reference to Hebrews 1:11. However, the current NWT does not cross-reference Psalm 102 here. Using their same rule found in the Appendix ["To know where the divine name was replaced by the Greek words Κύριος and Theos, we have determined where the inspired Christian writers have quoted verses, passages and expressions from the Hebrew Scriptures and then we have referred back to the Hebrew text to ascertain whether the divine name appears there. In this way we determined the identity to give Κύριος and Theos and the personality with which to clothe them."], the text should address Jesus in this way: “You at the beginning, Jehovah, laid the foundations of the earth itself, and the heavens are the works of your hands”.
It is clear that the NWT is inconsistent in its use of the name Jehovah in the New Testament. They insert and omit the name as they see fit, in keeping with their theology.
Good job researching this!
@Bill-The DNKJV is a scam. Please don't fall for it. http://ca.answers.yahoo.com/question/index?qid=201...
- Anonymous6 years ago
This Site Might Help You.
RE:
Why Does Jehovah's Name Never Appear in the Greek New Testament, but it's in the New Testament of the NWT?
I'd greatly appreciate any educated input from any Jehovah Witnesses out there. The NWT should be commended for having the Tetra restored in the Old Testament. Jehovah's name appears thousands of times in the Hebrew Scriptures. Bravo. However, There are over 5,000 Greek manuscript copies...
Source(s): jehovah 39 greek testament 39 testament nwt: https://biturl.im/N0yeb - Big Guy 360Lv 69 years ago
I just love this question and the very funny answer the JW's give which make no reference to the question in answering it. Since the name Jehovah NEVER was in ANY new testament writings nor was it even used as a name for God as it was a man made invention of the name.
I wonder why they believe such a thing. I mean in the Hebrew the name was Jehovah so in the Greek the name would be Jehovah? The name Jesus is in Greek but his name in Hebrew would have been Yashua or even Joshua. Jesus never used the name Jehovah and always called his Father either the Father or God the Father, why? He followed the Law. He was not a high priest yet! When speaking with these witness about the NWT and their rules, they only preach these rules for the benefit of others, you don't expect them to follow them do you? Because the don't. They make up these rules and then break them at will, just to keep their doctrines intact. The NWT is the most bias and completely flawed translation and should not ever be considered a Bible of true Christians. It's a book in sheep's clothing but inside its a wolf.
Again JW's there was never a new testamnet writing found that has the name Jehovah in it. So why not leave well enough alone instead of trying and doing the changes in the Bible? You have change the meanings of several verses because it fits with your doctrine. Why? Leave the Bible alone, it's the word of God, it does not need your changes or forced changes!
- 6 years ago
Relevance
p answered 3 days ago
John 20:17 says" I ascend to my god and to your god". How can Jesus be God if he is getting ready to ascend to his god? No one knows the last day, this includes the angels and Jesus, only the Father knows it. How can they be equal when only one third of the trinity knows this? Triad worship was practiced by the heathen countries around Jerusalem. Paul wrote that after he died men would come into the congregation speaking twisted things. This triad that you worship is what he was referring to. The trinity did not start until 325 A.D at the Council of Nicea. If you lived during the year 200 A.D, THERE WAS NO trinity to worship because you don"t see this word in the Bible and Jesus said" I can not do anything on my own, but only what I see MY Father doing! They are not equal people. GOD had no be begginning PSALM 90:2 says that God always existed and will always exist. Proverbs 8 starting with verse 22 tells you that when God was creating the earth, there was someone there whom he was fond of. This is Jesus whom was his first creation 1 Corinthians 15 the firstborn of all creation. The holidays are rooted in paganism, they are not Christian at all. They are fake. When are you going to come to an accurate truth of the Bible and study with the Jehovahswitnesses? This means life and death to you that you stop making up things that are not found in the scriptures You are a soul. You do not have a soul in your body that survives after death. the Bible says at Ezekial 18:4 that the soul DIES! When Jesus was performing ressurections, he said these people were asleep, not in Heaven or a burning hell. Genisis2:7 says man BECAME a living soul,not that man had a soul. Jews believe that you are a soul from the Hebrew word for soul NEPHESH. The Hebrew word for spirit is RUAH which means BREATH. This is the breath of life that God put into you to give you life. This RUAH goes back to HIM at death. Now you know what a soul is and what a spirit is. hell in Hebrew is Sheol, Sheol is mankinds grave. Everybody goes to their "hell or grave. Many translated King James versions, I have seen this translated as this. There are two lords in the Bible, PSALM 110:1 says this. Which lord are you talking about, Lord Jehovah or lord Jesus Christ? God has ONE name, which is the Hebrew Tetragramaton. Jesus prayed to his God and said I have made your Name known, not names! The Lord's prayer says let your Name be sanctified, not names. If the Holy Spirit is a person, what is his Name? The Fathers name is Jehovah and the Son's name is Jesus, but nowhere in the Bible says the name of the Holy Spirit? The trinity says they are three Persons in one? ONLY the Jehovahswitnesses have the truth, everything else is false teachings. The trinity is a false teaching. EVERYTHING that mainstream CHRISTEDOM teaches is false. The only true Christians on this planet are the Jehovahswitnesses. The next time they knock on your door ask for a free Bible study. I GUARANTEE they will conduct it with you for FREE! P.S Did not Satan tempt Jesus, How can Satan tempt God, God owns EVERYTHING. Constatine was a sun worshipper, not a Christian. He only wanted order in his empire. he did
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- EileenLv 45 years ago
I'll start with the second part of your question. The Greek manuscripts contain a generic word for "lord", even when it quotes verses from the Hebrew scriptures that obviously contain the Tetragramaton. What they have done is to go back and iinsert "Jehovah" into the places where the "OT" used the Tetragramaton. I am under the impression that they also inserted "Jehovah" into other places where they felt that it was implied from the context. Now for the first part, its possible that the "NT' never contained the Tetragramaton because it was considered too sacred to be contained in everyday writings that were not intended to be "holy" in the way that Christians now regard the "NT". Its ALSO POSSIBLE that the "NT" was not written in Greek, DID contain the Tetragramaton, but was later translated into Greek and the Tetragramaton was left out. Sunshine misses the fact that the passage she quotes form the Tosefta does not specify whether or not the manuscripts were the "NT" only, a combination of "NT" and "OT" or wha language they may have been in.t. Essentially her quote proves nothing.
- Anonymous9 years ago
The reason the name Jehovah does not appear in the original Greek manuscripts is because the name wasn't invented till the 12th century when Raymundus Martini, a Dominican monk, came up with it. Here is what the New World Translation Committee had to say about introducing it into the New Testament:
"Thus, out of the 237 times that we have rendered the divine name in the body of our version, there are only two instances where we have no support or agreement from any of the Hebrew version. But in these two instances, namely Ephesians 6:8 and Colossians 3:13, we feel strongly supported by the context and by related texts in rendering the divine name" (page 19 of the Forward).
"While inclining to view the pronunciation "Yah.weh" as the more correct way, we have retained the form "Jehovah" because of people's familiarity with it since the 14th century" (page 23 of the Forward).
Source(s): The Kingdom Interlinear Translation of the Greek Scriptures 1969 (the first one with the purple cover) - Anonymous5 years ago
It appears in the NWT because the Jehovah's Witnesses created that version themselves and for themselves. From what I have been told, It is altered in other places also so that it says what Jehovah's Witness WISH IT TO SAY and so that they can say, whilst going door to door, that the bibles in the hands of others is wrong.
- Anonymous7 years ago
Hello Grace,
I am one of Jehovahs Witnesses and just so happened to see your question. Alot of people have asked us this and it is very intresting how many "i hate JWs" people have said a answer. It is very funny to me as well as disheartening to look at what these people have said. Anyway, let me ask you a question, "Where is the evidence IN THE BIBLE that God does not have a name?". I mean there are so many scriptures saying things such as “I will glorify your name to time indefinite.” (Psalms 86:12) or even the lords prayer," let your name be sanctified"! I mean it is obvious that God has a name. What has happened is satan the devil is getting a grasp on the worlds thinking.First John 5:19 states that "the whole world is lying in the power of the wicked one". Sure you can say "oh, well, somone just made that up", but where is your evidence? I choose to follow what God says and not what men say, I would love to talk to you about this, and really hope you will accept my request to tell you more about mens lies today. You could email me at jessesilvernail@gmail.com And by the way I am so very happy to see you are carfully examining Gods word and hope you countinue to do so. :)
(take a look a jw.org for other questions you might have or search around on wol.jw.org.)
- 6 years ago
Hebrews 13:8 'Jesus Christ, the same yesterday and today and forever'. Do not be carried away by varied and strange teachings' Jesus did not change in personality as flesh and blood. Jesus said he was doing the will of the One who sent him, and even prayed before he died for Jehovah God to let the cup pass from him, but 'not my will but YOUR will be done. 1 Cor 15:27 explains the relationship between Christ and God 'For he has put all things in subjection. But when he says "All things are put in subjection" It is evident that He (Jehovah God) is excepted who put all things in subjection to Him, then the SON HIMSELF ALSO will be subjected to the ONE who subjected all things to him, so that God may be all in all.
