James Stuart was King James VI of Scotland. After Queen Elizabeth died James became King James I of England. But was he also separately King of Scotland as well. I've never heard him being referred to having two crowns one for each kingdom. His son King Charles I was king of England but he's never referred to King of Scotland. It's as if Scotland ceased being a kingdom once James became king of England.
Peter K
It was at the point a United Kingdom.
Clo
His reign was a primitive version of a united kingdom, but James was a king of two realms, Scotland and England. He had been King of Scotland for 36 years before becoming King of England.
https://www.royal.uk/james-i-r-1603-1625
He tried to make a governmental union of the two realms, but it failed to take hold. Scotland proved easier for James to deal with, meeting his aims, but England had its own set of problems. Both countries also wished to remain their own sovereign state. The realms were separate, with their own parliaments, judiciary, and laws. James was James VI of Scotland and James I of England.
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/James_VI_and_I
James was ambitious to build on the personal union of the Crowns of Scotland and England to establish a single country under one monarch, one parliament, and one law, a plan which met opposition in both realms. "Hath He not made us all in one island," James told the English parliament, "compassed with one sea and of itself by nature indivisible?" In April 1604, however, the Commons refused his request to be titled "King of Great Britain" on legal grounds. In October 1604, he assumed the title "King of Great Britain" by proclamation rather than statute, though Sir Francis Bacon told him that he could not use the style in "any legal proceeding, instrument or assurance".
Anonymous
No it did not, from james onwards the king or queen of england was the monarch of scotland too, although it took until queen anne was monarch that it was made official.
Robert B
The good news is that there are books written on the subjects of English history, Scottish history, and British history. Pick up any one of them, and you will encounter abundant references to James's having two crowns, one for each kingdom. Likewise, King Charles will be clearly shown as king of both England and Scotland.
As we recede into the new Dark Age, those books and, probably, all books will disappear into oblivion. But take heart. It may be only a thousand years or so (based on past experience), before mankind will recover the blessings of literacy, and the pen will once again become mightier than the sword.
tentofield
Yes, he was King James I of England and King James VI of Scotland. The next two Kings were Charles I and Charles II of England and Scotland then James II of England/James VII of Scotland. When he was deposed his daughter Mary became Queen Mary II of both England and Scotland while her husband was William III of England but William I of Scotland. While Mary II was the second Queen Mary of both England and Scotland, the first Queen Mary of England was Mary Tudor while Mary Queen of Scots was the first Queen Mary of Scotland. Mary's sister Anne was the last Stuart monarch and the last monarch of the two kingdoms. She became Queen of Great Britain, uniting England and Scotland, in 1707. She was followed the the six Georges, William IV, Victoria and Elizabeth II. Elizabeth's title caused some concern in Scotland as there had never been a previous Queen Elizabeth of Scotland.