James Stuart was King James VI of Scotland. After Queen Elizabeth died James became King James I of England. But was he also separately King of Scotland as well. I've never heard him being referred to having two crowns one for each kingdom. His son King Charles I was king of England but he's never referred to King of Scotland. It's as if Scotland ceased being a kingdom once James became king of England.
kookookachoo7863
Well, yes. But it's complicated. The Kingdoms of Scotland and England were united during his rule. He was King of Scotland first, then took the English throne due to his familial relationship to Elizabeth (cousin, I believe). Of course, he got the throne because the "powers that be" at the time figured they could control him. His reign could be called a disaster, IMHO
I believe that Scotland re-emerged as an independent kingdom several times in the centuries since his reign. So, he was James VI of Scotland and became James I of England and ruled Scotland from that throne, but not very well, lol. Good to see you, (((Purps)))!