R&S, why did the "A Lit Translation of the New Testament by Herman Heinfetter (1863) use the name Jehovah instead of Kyrios at Mat 4:7,10?
Matthew 4:7, 10 7 the Jesus said unto him again ie in answer, it hath been written, thou shalt not tempt Jehovah thy God.
10 That the Jesus says to him, depart Satan. For it hath been written, thou shalt worship Jehovah thy God, and thou shalt serve him only.
BJ2019-02-04T18:20:59Z
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Recognized Bible translators have used God��s name in the Christian Greek Scriptures. Some of these translators did so long before the New World Translation was produced.
These translators and their works include: A Literal Translation of the New Testament . . . From the Text of the Vatican Manuscript, by Herman Heinfetter (1863); The Emphatic Diaglott, by Benjamin Wilson (1864); The Epistles of Paul in Modern English, by George Barker Stevens (1898); St. Paul’s Epistle to the Romans, by W. G. Rutherford (1900); The New Testament Letters, by J.W.C. Wand, Bishop of London (1946). In addition, in a Spanish translation in the early 20th century, translator Pablo Besson used “Jehová” at Luke 2:15 and Jude 14, and nearly 100 footnotes in his translation suggest the divine name as a likely rendering.
Bible translations in over one hundred different languages contain the divine name in the Christian Greek Scriptures. Many African, Native American, Asian, European, and Pacific-island languages use the divine name liberally.
Some of these translations of the Christian Greek Scriptures have appeared recently, such as the Rotuman Bible (1999), which uses “Jihova” 51 times in 48 verses, and the Batak (Toba) version (1989) from Indonesia, which uses “Jahowa” 110 times.
Without a doubt, there is a clear basis for restoring the divine name, Jehovah, in the Christian Greek Scriptures. That is exactly what the translators of the New World Translation have done.
Because honest scholars have come to understand, The misuse of the title 'Lord' has created a confusion as to which Lord is being spoken about.
All translation including 'Literal' translations have to 'insert' words into the text to follow proper language syntax of the language being translated into.
Greek Syntax and English Syntax is not the same.
Heb 1:8 is a perfect example. In both the Hebrew text of Ps 45 and the Greek text of Heb 1:8 there isn't a verb.
In order to create an English translation, the translators had to insert a verb [for proper English Syntax], Most if not all use the verb 'IS'
Matthew 4:7, 10 are quotes from the Books of the Law, which included the Divine name and not the title Lord.
If Jesus is the 'angel of Jehovah' as many believe, he was the one who gave these words to Moses.
So why would he 'change' his original statements?
Did Jesus believe and accept the Jewish superstition concerning Jehovah's personal name?
No, he knew these superstitions had made God's Word invalid.
Why did he give the name of his God to his disciples? So they would know the love God has for the followers of Christ.
Who cares?? Incorrect translations prove nothing except that the translator was ignorant, stupid, and/or biased.
It's BIZARRE that some people seem to think the Greeks became extinct some time in 'the misty past'. Wrong. There are millions of us. Modern Greek is very much alive, and those of us who are scholarly have studied the Koine Greek of the Bible and/or Ancient/Classical Greek.
The Greek Orthodox Christian Church is also alive and well, and anyone wanting to know the accurate translation of the Koine Bible would go there instead of relying on puffed-up, half-assed, so-called "scholars" who claim to know better.
Evidently, the translator was one of those who substituted what he imagined the text ought to have said for what it actually says. The Greek sources use the Greek word for "Lord."
who cares what some nut bull did. There are all kinds of bad translation out there. That is why you want to go to the translations that have been exhaustively verified by Scholars