Why did the Lord Jesus the Christ refer to Himself as the Son of Man?

Robby2019-11-27T09:24:43Z

Because he (God himself) had appeared in a humble human form. Please ref Philippians 2:6-8 and let the Bible answer your question.

God bless you brother.

Rico2019-11-27T05:40:15Z

if He were to explicitly use the reference 'son of God' it would have been a sin.  The bible clearly shows that when asked if he was the son of God, He responded by saying 'if that’s what they say, it must be true'.  There are many instances where he used words and phrases which only the Son of God could use, and it was on the basis of those sayings that the Pharisees could validate their charges against Him. 

?2019-11-27T02:46:54Z

Because he came to earth as God and Man, born of the human, Mary.

?2019-11-27T02:31:33Z

Follow the lineage to Adam the first man.

Anonymous2019-11-27T02:02:42Z

Goat Herders thought it was cool 

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