Yahoo Answers is shutting down on May 4th, 2021 (Eastern Time) and beginning April 20th, 2021 (Eastern Time) the Yahoo Answers website will be in read-only mode. There will be no changes to other Yahoo properties or services, or your Yahoo account. You can find more information about the Yahoo Answers shutdown and how to download your data on this help page.

Why did the Lord Jesus the Christ refer to Himself as the Son of Man?

13 Answers

Relevance
  • 1 year ago

    Because he (God himself) had appeared in a humble human form. Please ref Philippians 2:6-8 and let the Bible answer your question.

    God bless you brother.

  • ?
    Lv 7
    1 year ago

    The thing you call: lord jesus chris, can't refer itself as ' something '. Only its creator is able to do that, but only via its adventures.

    Many novels have been written about it, the more well-known is called: Bible.

  • Rico
    Lv 6
    1 year ago

    if He were to explicitly use the reference 'son of God' it would have been a sin.  The bible clearly shows that when asked if he was the son of God, He responded by saying 'if that’s what they say, it must be true'.  There are many instances where he used words and phrases which only the Son of God could use, and it was on the basis of those sayings that the Pharisees could validate their charges against Him. 

  • 1 year ago

    Because he came to earth as God and Man, born of the human, Mary.

  • How do you think about the answers? You can sign in to vote the answer.
  • 1 year ago

    Follow the lineage to Adam the first man.

  • Anonymous
    1 year ago

    Goat Herders thought it was cool 

  • because He was born fully mortal man.......

  • 1 year ago

    So that someone would look in the bible 

    to see if he was lying or not. 

  • Anonymous
    1 year ago

    He also referred to Himself as the Son of God showing both His humanity and divinity

  • Mack
    Lv 7
    1 year ago

    He didn't know who his real daddy was....

Still have questions? Get your answers by asking now.