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can anybody prove that 2=1?

please prove 2=1

13 Answers

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  • 1 decade ago
    Favorite Answer

    let a+b+c=0

    then 2a-a+2b-b+2c-c=0

    transfer to the other side...

    2a+2b+2c=a+b+c

    cancel a+b+c

    2=1

    Tadaa!!!

  • Anonymous
    1 decade ago

    Any one can try 2=1 with solved example of proving 3=2

    This is a anomaly or whatever u call in mathematics.

    Ramanujam found it but never disclosed it during his

    life time.

    It has been found from his dairy it seems.

    See this illustration: for example say

    -6 = -6

    9-15 = 4-10

    adding 25/4 to both sides:

    9-15+25/4 = 4-10+25/4

    Changing the order

    9+25/4-15 = 4+25/4-10

    (this is just like a square + b square - two a b = a-b

    whole square.) Here a = 3,2 b=5/2 so it can be

    expressed as follows

    (3-5/2)(3-5/2) = (2-5/2)(2-5/2) taking positive square

    root on both sides:

    3 - 5/2 = 2 - 5/2

    3 = 2

  • 1 decade ago

    Zen Azura ir right But Also,

    2=1 for very large values of 1

  • ?
    Lv 4
    5 years ago

    enable a = b - Multiply the two sides by employing a a² = ab - upload (a² - 2ab) to the two sides a² + a² - 2ab = ab + a² - 2ab - factor the left, and convey mutually like words on the superb 2(a² - ab) = a² - ab - Divide the two sides by employing (a² - ab) 2 = a million of course, 2 would not actual equivalent a million, so there would desire to be some form of fallacy in the diagnosis. retaining in strategies a undeniable operation that's undefined, are you able to locate the subject? I won't supply it away here, yet once you're curious, be at liberty to e mail me for further information.

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  • 1 decade ago

    I HAVE HEARD 2 + 2 = 5. FIRST YOU PROVE THIS THEN I WILL PROVE THAT TO YOU.

  • 1 decade ago

    theres nothing to prove in this becaus the statement is false.

  • arpita
    Lv 5
    1 decade ago

    a=b

    a^2=ab multiply by a

    a^2-b^2=ab-b^2 subtract b^2

    (a-b) (a+b)=b(a-b)

    a+b=b

    a+a=a (a=b)

    2a=a

    2=1

    hence proved.

  • 1 decade ago

    of course.

    if we think that 2 is x, and 1 is y,

    then it will be x=y

    then if we set the x mean and y meaning, then

    2=1(proved)

    EURACHA( i think)

  • Anonymous
    5 years ago

    Interesting question!

  • Anonymous
    1 decade ago

    well change both the numbers to either side they give the same.

    HENCE PROVED...........

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