What's up with Acts 15 and 16...?

The Law no longer applied to Christians and to keep some from being stumbled at the truth it was made known that those turning to Christianity were not under the Law, concerning Timothy, Paul circumcised him in order not to stumble any Jews living there from coming to the truth. I can't find it right now but I believe it was Paul who said something to the effect, to the Jews I became as a Jew, to the Romans I became as a Roman, and to those without law as not having law so that I might gain some, (not exact words) it's all about gaining souls without stumbling them. Just as a Christian would not drink any alcohol around someone who is a recovering alcoholic even though drinking alcohol is OK.

Well the old law included the killing of bulls and rams to atone for sins. I think Paul was talking about that among other things. As Jews there were still certain traditions they go by. Circumcision was part of the covenant between Abraham and God that still continues. That had not changed but it didn't mean that circumcision was a part of the law. Moses's law came much later many generations after Abraham.

It wasn't necessary for Timothy to be circumcised in order for him to be accepted by God. He was not under the old law. But Paul knew that in order for him to be accepted by the Jews, he would need to be circumcised since his father was a Greek. Actually, the Bible explains the answer to your question in Acts 16:3

It was a case of "becoming all things to all men that perhaps they might win some."

5:18 For verily I say unto you, Till * heaven and earth pass, one jot or one tittle shall in no wise pass from the law, till * all be fulfilled.

The new law includes some of the old law!

We didn't give up THOU SHALT NOT KILL or COMMIT ADUTERY!

We did give up stoning fornicators.

Is this proving or disproving the Bible?