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Male celibacy question?

What are the chances that if a man were celibate for 4+ years, he became intimate with someone, but couldn't orgasm? No snide remarks please, I really need mature wisdom on this.

8 Answers

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  • Anonymous
    1 decade ago
    Favorite Answer

    It would help to know if he masturbated and had an orgasm during his celibate period. If he did not, he may be out of practice and needs a patient lover to help him be able to orgasm.

  • Anonymous
    1 decade ago

    It could be psychological. If you were celebate for moral reasons, it could have a big impact on your failure to orgasm. You may not realizie it, but you might be thinking deep down inside that you are doing something wrong by having sex, and you unable to orgasm because of that. I was brought up to be celebate myself, but I broke. Sometimes I find it hard to orgasm myself when I feel like I'm not doing what I am supposed to be doing. If this isn't what you're experiencing, then see a doctor.

  • Anonymous
    1 decade ago

    It's probably because there is NO chemistry between the to intimate persons. Two people can climb into bed and go through the motions but if there isn't any or very little chemistry, then there isn't going to be much bang for your buck,

  • Anonymous
    1 decade ago

    I would say there was another reason for his celibacy. If after four years he had sex and couldn't orgasm he probably has problems he's not telling you about.

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  • Anonymous
    1 decade ago

    Men orgasm, on avarage, 95% of the time, reguardless of sexual activity levels.

  • 1 decade ago

    There are too many things that this could be. Best thing here is to have him see his doctor. Please don't mess around with the unknown.

  • 1 decade ago

    very unlikely !

  • 1 decade ago

    Well, I guess that would make him a loser

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