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What is the probability that 2 M&Ms have the same color when 3 are drawn?

I've got a large bag of M&Ms, large enough that the supply can be considered infinite. Furthermore, I'll assume that all six colors I observe are in the same quantity. If I take 3 M&Ms from the bag, what is the probability that two, and only two, M&Ms are the same color? What is your reasoning?

9 Answers

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  • 1 decade ago
    Favorite Answer

    the probability that the second one does not match the first is 5/6, the probability that the third does not match either one (assuming they all don't match) is 4/6, so the probability that all three don't match is 5/6*4/6=5/9, so the probability of a match is 1-5/9 or 4/9

    Now, we have to take into account the possibility that the second and third match the first, which is 1/36, so the probability of exactly one match is 4/9-1/36=11/36

    Thinking about this more...scratch the paragraph directly above. There are only three types of outcomes: there are no matches (prob of that is 5/9 or 20/36), prob of two and only two matching, and prob of all three matching. The prob of the second two choices matching the first is 1/36, leaving the prob of exactly one match as 1-20/36-1/36=15/36=5/12 as others have found.

  • Merlyn
    Lv 7
    1 decade ago

    Assuming there are only six colors and there is equal probability for each color then

    Let X be the number of M&M of a given color. X has the binomial distribution

    with n = 3 trials and success probability p = 0.1666667 .

    In general, if X has the binomial distribution with n trials and a success probability of p then

    P[X = x] = n!/(x!(n-x)!) * p^x * (1-p)^(n-x)

    for values of x = 0, 1, 2, ..., n

    P[X = x] = 0 for any other value of x.

    this is found by looking at the number of combination of x objects chosen from n objects and then a total of x success and n - x failures.

    Or, to be more accurate, the binomial is the sum of n independent and identically distributed Bernoulli trials.

    X ~ Binomial( n , p )

    the mean of the binomial distribution is n * p = 0.5

    the variance of the binomial distribution is n * p * (1 - p) = 0.4166667

    the standard deviation is the square root of the variance = 0.6454972

    The Probability Mass Function, PDF,

    f(X) = P(X = x) is:

    P(X = 0 ) = 0.578703703703704

    P(X = 1 ) = 0.3472222222222222

    P(X = 2 ) = 0.06944444444444445

    P(X = 3 ) = 0.00462962962962963

    Now that is just for one color, we have to consider the possibility of any color appearing twice.

    There are six possible colors and so we multiply:

    6 * P(X = 2) = 0.4166667

    to confirm this calculation I wrote a simulation in R to draw three MM's from an infinite bag with equal probability of getting any one color. The code counts the number of times that the there are two MM's of the same color selected

    MM <- seq(1,6,1)

    count <- 0

    trials <- 5500

    for(i in 1:trials)

    {

    data <- sample(MM,3,TRUE)

    mode <- sort(-table(data))

    if(mode[[1]] == -2) {count <- count + 1}

    }

    cat("counts:",count,"\nProb:",count/trials,"\n")

    OUTPUT:

    counts: 2287

    Prob: 0.4158182

  • 1 decade ago

    The first M&M can be any color.

    There are two cases for the second M&M drawn.

    p(different color than first) = 5/6

    p(same color as first) = 1/6

    ____________

    If the first two M&Ms are different colors the chance of matching one of them with the third M&M is

    p(match) = 2/6 = 1/3

    If the two M&Ms are the same color the chance of drawing a different colof with the third M&M is

    p(no match) = 5/6

    __________

    Put this together and you get the probability of two and only two colors between three M&Ms

    P(2 colors) = (5/6)(1/3) + (1/6)(5/6) = 5/18 + 5/36 = 5/12

  • 1 decade ago

    Probability of your picking up one M&M of a particular color is (1/6).

    Probability that you may pick up the second M&M of the same color = (1/6)

    Probability that you may pick up the third M&M of a different color = (5/6)

    Hence, probability that you may pick up first 2 M&Ms of a particular color and the third of a different color

    = (1/6)^2 * (5/6) = 5/216

    This can happen in 3 different ways

    => probability = 15/216 = 5/72

    Hence, for 6 colors, probability that any 2 M&Ms are of the same color and the third of the different color

    = 6 * (5/72)

    = 5/12

  • 1 decade ago

    ok. your first M&M can be any color, so the probability of picking it is just 1.

    Now, there are two cases for your second one.

    You pick the color, or you don't.

    Ok, so if you do- there is 1/6 chance that you pick it, and then a 5/6 chance that you don't pick it the second time, which is 5/36.

    If you don't, there is a 5/6 chance of that happening, and then a 1/3 chance of getting the right one, which is 5/18=10/36.

    5/36+10/36=15/36=5/12

  • 1 decade ago

    What we are attempting to get is:

    2 with the same color, 1 of a different color.

    First there are 216 combinations (6^3)

    Of these we can form 2 the same and 1 different as follows:

    AAB

    ABA

    BAA

    We have 6 choices for the A color, 5 choices for the B color and 3 ways to have drawn them.

    6 x 5 x 3 = 90

    90 good outcomes

    216 possible outcomes

    90 / 216

    = 10 / 24

    = 5 / 12

    To prove that this is the right answer, here's a full enumeration of the 90 ways to have picked 3 M&Ms where exactly 2 match color.

    Red Red Orange

    Red Red Yellow

    Red Red Green

    Red Red Blue

    Red Red Brown

    Red Orange Red

    Red Orange Orange

    Red Yellow Red

    Red Yellow Yellow

    Red Green Red

    Red Green Green

    Red Blue Red

    Red Blue Blue

    Red Brown Red

    Red Brown Brown

    Orange Red Red

    Orange Red Orange

    Orange Orange Red

    Orange Orange Yellow

    Orange Orange Green

    Orange Orange Blue

    Orange Orange Brown

    Orange Yellow Orange

    Orange Yellow Yellow

    Orange Green Orange

    Orange Green Green

    Orange Blue Orange

    Orange Blue Blue

    Orange Brown Orange

    Orange Brown Brown

    Yellow Red Red

    Yellow Red Yellow

    Yellow Orange Orange

    Yellow Orange Yellow

    Yellow Yellow Red

    Yellow Yellow Orange

    Yellow Yellow Green

    Yellow Yellow Blue

    Yellow Yellow Brown

    Yellow Green Yellow

    Yellow Green Green

    Yellow Blue Yellow

    Yellow Blue Blue

    Yellow Brown Yellow

    Yellow Brown Brown

    Green Red Red

    Green Red Green

    Green Orange Orange

    Green Orange Green

    Green Yellow Yellow

    Green Yellow Green

    Green Green Red

    Green Green Orange

    Green Green Yellow

    Green Green Blue

    Green Green Brown

    Green Blue Green

    Green Blue Blue

    Green Brown Green

    Green Brown Brown

    Blue Red Red

    Blue Red Blue

    Blue Orange Orange

    Blue Orange Blue

    Blue Yellow Yellow

    Blue Yellow Blue

    Blue Green Green

    Blue Green Blue

    Blue Blue Red

    Blue Blue Orange

    Blue Blue Yellow

    Blue Blue Green

    Blue Blue Brown

    Blue Brown Blue

    Blue Brown Brown

    Brown Red Red

    Brown Red Brown

    Brown Orange Orange

    Brown Orange Brown

    Brown Yellow Yellow

    Brown Yellow Brown

    Brown Green Green

    Brown Green Brown

    Brown Blue Blue

    Brown Blue Brown

    Brown Brown Red

    Brown Brown Orange

    Brown Brown Yellow

    Brown Brown Green

    Brown Brown Blue

    P.S. To those that are getting 5/72 as an answer, you are forgetting that there is no designated color. It didn't say that you have to get 2 *red* and 1 non-red, for example. It said that exactly two have to be the same color. Multiply your answer by 6 (any of 6 colors as the double) and you get the correct answer of 30/72 = 5/12

  • 1 decade ago

    I just got done taking statistics (statistics for engineers and scientists) at the university I go to, so I am pretty confident of that William's answer is right. His explanation is correct too, but I will explain in more mathematical terms.

    We will call success P and a failure Q. P represents a that a particular color is chosen and probability is 1/6. Q is the probability that any other color is chosen and the prob is 5/6.

    We will call the number of trials n and the number of successes x. You want to take three trials and achieve two successes.

    According the binomial distribution, the probability of choosing x successes in n trials with probability of success P and failure Q is given by the following:

    P(X=x)=(n choose x)(p^x)(q^x)

    The choose term is a probability term that give the number of combinations of the answers. 3 choose 2 is three so the resulting probability is:

    3(1/6)^2(5/6)=3(1/6)(1/6)(5/6)=6.9444%

    By the way, no answer above 16.66% (1/6) makes any sense because that is probability that you would choose any one color.

  • 1 decade ago

    OK assuming that the bag has the same number of each color your chance of pulling 2 of the same color and one of a different color would be 5 out of 12

  • 1 decade ago

    the probablity is

    3(1/6)(1/6)(5/6)

    =15/216

    to get a colour,you have 1/6 probablity.

    to get the same colour for the second M&M,you have 1/6 probablity.

    to get a different colour for the third M&M,you have 1-1/6=5/6 probablity.

    the events are consecuitve,hence the values are multiplied.This can occur 3 times,that is either first,second and third is not the same with others.Hence,the value is multiplied by 3.

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