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Can one partner claim share in a property and money held by another partner before marrying to this person?
10 Answers
- Anonymous1 decade agoFavorite Answer
NO
- ElsieLv 61 decade ago
Depends on the state. I bought a condo before I met my husband. When we got married, I never put his name on the title, but when we went to sell the place, it turns out in the state of Minnnesota (where we were living at the time) real property belongs to BOTH partners one they get married. We had to add his name to the title before we sold it.
I'm sure this law was created to protect women when the situation was that men held all the property, and if they got divorced, the woman usually got screwed.
I don't know about money. I know my husband was afraid his ex was going to go after his 401K, but she didnt' know he had one, and she got the lion's share of the sale of the house when it sold. However, he started the 401K after they were married, so I don't know if that is really the question you are answering.
If he/she is a decent person, I would hope they would take into consideration what didn't belong to them prior to the marriage.
- 1 decade ago
I'm not totally sure but i think it all depends on how long you have been in the relationship and have shred the property and who contributed to the acesses, and on wher you live.I would get some free advice from a lawyer because i believe you have rights here. good luck
- Anonymous1 decade ago
Nope. Only after marriage, and in most cases, they have to prove that they put money into that property.
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- 1 decade ago
Of course they can, what do you think Paul is fighting that money grabbing cow in court for.
- Anonymous1 decade ago
If the money is what your marriage is based on aside from true love, then this whole "arrangement" is DOOMED!