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How do you feel about the government using the word "idiot" when writing a law?

I was recently informed that several states do not allow "idiots" or "insane persons" the right to vote. I'm not really concerned about starting a debate about how competent someone must be in order to vote. I am interested, however, in how you feel about the choice of the wordings. Personally, I am shocked that it has been allowed to remain since "idiot" is not exactly a well defined term. Who gets to decide on whether or not someone is an idiot anyway?

http://www.bazelon.org/pdf/voter_qualification_cha...

The states that do not allow "idiots" to vote are as follows:

Iowa - No idiot, or insane person, or person

convicted of any infamous crime, shall

be entitled to the privileges of an

elector. IOWA CONST. art. 2, § 5.

Kentucky - “Idiots” and “insane” persons shall not

have the right to vote. KY. CONST. §

145(3).

Mississippi - “Idiots” and “insane” persons shall not

be entitled or permitted to vote. MISS.

CODE ANN. § 23-15-11.

New Mexico - No person shall have the right of

suffrage who is an “idiot” or “insane”

person. N.J. STAT. ANN. § 19:4-1(1).

and Ohio - No “idiot” or “insane person” shall be

entitled to the privileges of an elector.

OHIO CONST. art 5, §

New Jersey recently amended their constitution, but before 2007 it read "No person shall have

the right of suffrage who is an “idiot” or

“insane” person." which most of America would probably apply to anyone but themselves.

What are your thoughts?

Update:

Ok - I know that the laws were written a long time ago. I also know that 'idiot' used to refer to a specific range of inteligence (not always consistently defined). I also know all about mental competency and PC terms, as I have two brothers who are classified as Mentally Retarded.

My question is more along the lines of how you feel about the governments in these state not updating their laws and still using such offensive language?

Update 2:

There are some texts that define it as an IQ range. However, since they did not specify which test they were using, it is still meaningless. IQ scores are not consistent across tests. Even more, gettin someone to test with an IQ of under 25 (using a scale where 70 is MR and 160 is "genius") is virtually impossible. Long before you get to that end of the IQ spectrum, any normal tests become meaningless. So even in the day when these laws were written, the term "idiot" was not truly defined. It may have been more comonplace with a less coloquial meaning than it has now, but it hardly qualifies as a concrete standard.

Also, I do not live in a state that uses that term. Trust me, if I did, I would have already written a letter. My state only has rules against people who have been deemed by a court to be mentally incompetent. They even have a statute that specifically says a diagnosis of retardation does not equal incompetence.

5 Answers

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  • Anonymous
    1 decade ago
    Favorite Answer

    Yes, the language is offensive. Let's modernize it, substituting for the term "idiot" the term "liberal."

  • 1 decade ago

    The fact is, we have a living, evolving, constantly changing language. Terms get used ALL THE TIME that will be out-of-date in 50 years (look at the modern day confusion over the once very clear meaning of the word militia in the 2nd Amendment). But they are still viewed through the intent and definition, the context, of the time in which they were written.

    Also, the word idiot was very clearly defined in a number of psychological textbooks and the DSM as someone with an IQ between 0 and 20 or 25 with a standard deviation of 16, depending on source (yes, some "inconsistency," but always at the bottom end of the scale and varying only by a few points).

    I'm not saying it is "right" the way it is currently worded, but it certainly was not "wrong" when written. And that IS meaningful. I don't feel one way or the other about the government using the term in old laws, especially as it was a very well defined, even scientific, term at the point it was used. I'd feel differently if they wrote one tomorrow, but these examples were probably not passed recently.

    If people have an issue with it within a specific district or state, the answer is easy. Petition the government for redress and request a rewriting of the law. Politicians LOVE good press and a special interest group asking for this simple change to an inoffensive term is the kind of thing savvy politicians eat for breakfast. Updating these laws should take about an hour's worth of phone calls, two or three television interviews, and strongly worded press release. In the case of Constitutional uses, a few thousand signatures on petitions could put a rewritten version of the law on the ballot in a few months time. I have no doubt the public would pass it.

  • Anonymous
    1 decade ago

    Idiot used to be a legitimate term for a mentally retarded person .

    But obviously by todays language most of the American voters are idiots .. so the terms should be changed .

  • Pfo
    Lv 7
    1 decade ago

    Their are people who are classified as mentally incompetent. Some people are not of sound mind to vote, and I'm not talking about generally stupid people but rather those that are legitimately disabled. Some people are classified as mentally incompetent (or similar terms) because it classifies them for disability. I'm quite familiar with this, my cousin was recently classified as such after an accident caused massive brain damage. Use of terms like idiot or insane are not politically correct though, and to my knowledge usage of such terms has been updated to be more PC and polite.

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  • Anonymous
    1 decade ago

    These laws were written a long time ago, when the word had a different connotation than it does today.

    Most psychologists no longer use the terms idiot, imbecile and moron, since they are considered offensive. Instead, they say profoundly retarded, moderately retarded, and mildly retarded, which are more PC.

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