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Would a ban on robo-calling people without their express permission be unconstitutional in the US?
Would it violate a person's freedom of speech, for example, to be told that they may not have a computer dial people's phones and play them a recorded message unless the person has explicity consented to such automated calls? (Eg. you could give the library permission to have their computer remind you about overdue books.)
2 Answers
- viLv 41 decade agoFavorite Answer
I don't see how it would violate freedom of speech anymore than the call violates my right to privacy
- Anonymous1 decade ago
sure. it's your country, ain't it? last time i checked it...
