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Catholic friends told me Jesus' "brothers" were actually "cousins" in the Greek. Can someone document this?
And by DOCUMENT -- in that Greek ADELPHOI unambiguously can mean "cousins" -- I mean citing the following:
1) Name at least ONE standard Koine Greek lexicon that says ADELPHOI means "cousins"
and
2) Give at least one unambiguous example in Koine Greek literature where ADELPHOI means "cousins".
It really wouldn't matter to me in some theological sense if Jesus did or didn't have any brothers -- except for the fact that several New Testament texts mention Jesus' brothers specifically -- but because my Catholic friends are so adamant about it in their efforts to support the perpetual virginity of Mary. So I would like to make up my mind once and for all.
I have a degree in Attic/Koine Greek and I can't remember EVER encountering a lexicon or even one Greek text where it was unambigous that ADELPHOI ("brothers") actually meant "cousins".
So I'm not trying to undermine anyone's beliefs nor am I trying to show disrespect Catholic theology. I simply want to know if there is any actual PROOF in the form of LEXICAL DOCUMENTATION and TEXTUAL PROOF that will make clear that the "the brothers of Jesus in the Biblical text were actually cousins because the Greek word used there meant both brother and cousin!" And I am being specific about needing PRIMARY documentation because simply quoting some secondary source that says "the word for brothers actually meant cousins" proves nothing.
SO, I ASK CATHOLICS & EVERYONE ELSE: Can you document that Jesus' "brothers" were actually his "cousins"??
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MY 5 CENTS: Very funny! (Sent me to a Strong's Concordance. OK but I'm serious.)
___
Once again: For lexicographic purposes, a text where ADELPHOI *MIGHT BE* a case of "cousins" is not unambigous. Lexicons don't based their definition on what a word MIGHT be--especially when there is a theological agenda behind forcing a meaning onto a word. So once again, can you name one STANDARD LEXICON where the experts determined the ADELPHOI has "cousins" as one of the defined meanings.
Of course, in the "brothers of Jesus" passage that is so famous, it loses its significance if people were referring to the COUSINS of Jesus. (Cousins wouldn't share the same house or even live necessarily in the same city. The context clearly is speaking about knowing Jesus and his family because they all grew up and lived among them.)
Again, MIGHT BE is insufficient for lexicography. And if cousins was meant, Greek had a word for cousins. (And because Catholics believe the Greek text was/is inspired, an Aramaic-to-Greek translation would have used the Greek word for "cousin".)
_______
JAMES OSSUARY IN 2002: Even though that ossuary would bolster my point, I worked on the ossuary when it was in Montreal and the "brother of Jesus" part of the inscription is so different (and even more shallow) than the rest of the inscription such that I personally doubt that the "brother of Jesus" portion is genuine from the first century. (I was really hoping I could say it was but it just didn't look legit. The text sort of just trailed off and down the side of the box.)
_______
CLARIFICATION: Since I'm not Catholic and have no personal reason either way to "preserve" the perpetual virginity of Mary, I have no reason for a preference. I'm simply asking for a lexicographic or general Greek literature example of an UNAMBIGOUS ADELPHOI AS "COUSIN". That is all. As to what I personally think about whether the brothers of Jesus were half-brothers from a previous (but unknown/unmentioned) marriage of Joseph or simply other children of Mary and Joseph doesn't matter to me. (I used to lean toward the half-brother idea until I thought about how speculative it was for something never suggested anywhere in scripture.)
The ossuary article cited, however, is a good one -- and it helps everyone to see how complicated the issue is. (And I've never agreed with Ben Worthington on the ossuary-inscription-must-be-authentic theory -- although I give him credit for publishing a book so quickly after the announcement and making sales from the publicity!)
NOW AS TO:
"Many men greater and more learned than you have studied this book in conjunction with their faith longer and more diligently than you have."
IN REPLY: No doubt posterity will determine if that is true or not. But unless you know my identity and have read/studied my books and journal articles when you were in graduate school, I wonder how you can make so many judgments about my "greatness" and "diligence" and "study" and "faith" in comparison to theirs.
But if what you are saying is true, shouldn't then YOU or the unnamed "many men greater and more learned than" me be able to cite EVEN ONE LEXICON that answers my question?
If the word can be proven to mean "cousin", it is no skin off my bones (as the old saying goes). So I don't have a personal bias -- but when people start hurling personal judgments, it becomes clear to me that they DO HAVE PERSONAL BIAS. And that gives the appearance of "dogma" over substance. I just want to know the truth in the text. Agreed?
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DAVE W: I'm missing something in the progression of your argument. How were you able to dismiss choice A?
Of course, my original question was lexicographic support for the cousins rendering of the text -- but I appreciate the doctrinal tangents related to the issue. (But part of my point is that when it comes to this doctrine, it seems like everyone want to impose pre-determined doctrine on the Biblical text instead of letting the Biblical text upon the doctrine. After all, no Biblical text claims that Mary was a perpetual virgin.
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IN SUPPORT OF JESUS BEING ONLY SON OF MARY: Just to prove that I'm interesting in the lexicography and not biased toward one rendering or the other in terms of doctrine: I've always thought a good argument I could give in FAVOR of Mary not having other children would be the fact that Jesus on the cross did NOT entrust his mother, Mary, to Jesus' younger brothers! Jesus asked JOHN to see that she was cared for in her senior years. So it seems like THAT would suggest that either all of Jesus' younger brothers had died by then (very unlikely, I would think, seeing how Jesus was not all that old) OR there never were any other brothers of Jesus who could take care of Mary.
So I think that that is one of the strongest arguments for saying that Mary had no other children. (But perhaps there is a cultural factor here that we don't know about. But I don't like arguments from silence unless truly called for because its not really silence.)
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PAULDUDE: You did a good job of laying out on paper the traditional Protestant expository review of the issue -- and I do agree that some readers of this section will find it helpful. Thank you.
Of course, others have made some good contributions as well. I APPRECIATE ALL OF YOU FOR YOUR ANSWERS ON THIS QUESTION. I wanted to get a variety of outlooks on this question and many of you stepped forward. THANKS MUCH TO YOU ALL.
.
22 Answers
- 1 decade agoFavorite Answer
No I cannot, nor can I endorse the desired reading from the greek:
Example:
Luk 8:19 ThenG1161 cameG3854 toG4314 himG846 his motherG3384 andG2532 hisG846 brethren,G80 andG2532 couldG1410 notG3756 come atG4940 himG846 forG1223 theG3588 press.G3793
Luk 8:20 AndG2532 it was toldG518 himG846 by certain which said,G3004 ThyG4675 motherG3384 andG2532 thyG4675 brethrenG80 standG2476 without,G1854 desiringG2309 to seeG1492 thee.G4571
Notice his brothers are both G80 in the greek, or the greek word "adelphos". It means brother, in EITHER a literal OR figurative sense, near or remote.
Mat 4:18 AndG1161 Jesus,G2424 walkingG4043 byG3844 theG3588 seaG2281 of Galilee,G1056 sawG1492 twoG1417 brethren,G80 SimonG4613 calledG3004 Peter,G4074 andG2532 AndrewG406 hisG846 brother,G80 castingG906 a netG293 intoG1519 theG3588 sea:G2281 forG1063 they wereG2258 fishers.G231
In this verse above, you note that Andrew is Peters LITERAL brother, yet the same word, G80 is used here. (Literal near sense)
Joh 20:17 JesusG2424 saithG3004 unto her,G846 TouchG680 meG3450 not;G3361 forG1063 I am not yetG3768 ascendedG305 toG4314 myG3450 Father:G3962 butG1161 goG4198 toG4314 myG3450 brethren,G80 andG2532 sayG2036 unto them,G846 I ascendG305 untoG4314 myG3450 Father,G3962 andG2532 yourG5216 Father;G3962 andG2532 to myG3450 God,G2316 andG2532 yourG5216 God.G2316
Yet in this verse Christ refers to "the brethren", IE all those whom believe in him, using the same G80 (figurative near sense)
Yet, in the entirety of the New Testament, out of the 346 times this greek word is used, not once is it translated to "cousin". Just three words: Brother, Brother's, or Brethren.
"Cousin", "Kin", "Kinsfolk" or "kinsman", etc.., referring to an indirect relationship, is always translated from the greek word G4473 "suggenes", meaning: "blood relative or by extension fellow countryman".
Examples:
Luk 1:36 And,G2532 behold,G2400 thyG4675 cousinG4773 Elisabeth,G1665 sheG846 hath alsoG2532 conceivedG4815 a sonG5207 inG1722 herG848 old age:G1094 andG2532 thisG3778 isG2076 the sixthG1623 monthG3376 with her,G846 who was calledG2564 barren.G4723
Luk 14:12 ThenG1161 saidG3004 he alsoG2532 to him that badeG2564 him,G846 WhenG3752 thou makestG4160 a dinnerG712 orG2228 a supper,G1173 callG5455 notG3361 thyG4675 friends,G5384 norG3366 thyG4675 brethren,G80 neitherG3366 thyG4675 kinsmen,G4773 norG3366 thy richG4145 neighbours;G1069 lestG3379 theyG846 alsoG2532 bid thee again,G479 G4571 andG2532 a recompenceG468 be madeG1096 thee.G4671
This is easily proven with any strong's exhaustive concordance.
ADDED:
I add this to explain one thing, namely why the document I chose to quote was scripture, and the strong's concordance. When examining a documents translation, you examine it according to usage and meaning of the original words, understanding that none of the original writers were native greeks, and a high probability exists that many of the documents were translated INTO the greek. Therefore, you examine how the writers used the words elsewhere to understand why they used them in that particular instance.
You sound like you may already know this though. Many reading this, however probably do not.
Paul Andrulis
Source(s): KJV w/strongs numbers Strongs Exhaustive Concordance - Anonymous1 decade ago
Actually the language spoken by Christ and the Jews besides Hebrew was Aramaic and the Aramaic language had no word for cousins or step brothers thus all family relatives and actual brothers and sisters were all called brothers and sisters. Thus the confusion in the translation from Aramaic to Greek.But even with most the Scriptures written in Greek the greek Church still taught that the brothers and sisters mentioned were Joseph's children from his first wife.The Catholic Church makes no definite stand on whether they were step Children or cousins but firmly maintains Mary's perpetual Virginity.The problem with so much that the bible writers felt not recording was left up to oral teachings so that tradition was the bases for a lot of our early Church history. Also one has to realize that all the early Church had for written records were scattered around all the different Churches and many were unknown to Other Churches outside of oral tradition.It was not until the 4th century that all the varied writings and Gospels were brought togather and decided upon which were authentic and which were questionable. But one theme seemed to stay consistent and that was Marys Virginity and either they were Jesus cousins or half brother's and sister's.The strongest argument for cousins was them not mentioned at his death and his entrusting the care of his Mother to the Apostle John as with Jewish tradition if he did have blood brothers and sisters they would have been the ones appointed care takers of his mother.
- ShinigamiLv 71 decade ago
hm...I'm Ukr Catholic, and the bible for Ukrainians was translated from the Greek, I suppose, but in Ukrainian, which is a cyrillic language, the word for "cousin" is literally "other brother".
I don't think Aramaic had any word for cousin....so whatever was translated from Aramaic to Greek (the written language of the day) and then to Latin (the language of the conquorors), probably you may have to go back to that language (which was eradicated and died with the martyrs), and in the end, we have Hebrew, an alphabet with no vowels, but every letter resembles a flame.
Because the bible was compiled 3-400 years after the fact, I would tend to rely upon tradition rather than the bible, although the bible has several salient points to make, it is a work that grew out of faith, not the other way around.
In other words, the faith came first, the bible came with it, but not as the be all and end all of the faith. It is a tool used to confirm the locution of the Holy Spirit.
Many men greater and more learned than you have studied this book in conjunction with their faith longer and more diligently than you have.
Besides this, there are other documents relevant to the situation that were not included in the bible, yet are considered by early Christians to be a very big part of their faith. If you look up the protoevangelium of James and study it a while, you will understand what I mean.
- cristoiglesiaLv 71 decade ago
The Catholic Church does not unequivocally claim that the word "adelphoi" means cousins although it is possible that they were His cousins. (Bauer-Arndt-Gingrich Lexicon) but the usage of "adelphoi" is most likely the authors attempt to suggest familiarity of those present to Jesus and would be better defined as brethren or those of like theological mind. What we do know is that none of those described were siblings of our Lord. Contrary to your statement there would definitely be a theological problem with such a supposition. It would have a bearing on the veracity of the Church's claim of the divinity of our Lord and the sufficiency as a result of Him being the perfect sacrifice prophesied.
If you are looking for clarification of whether or not the blessed mother was forever virgin by using the ambiguity of the meaning of "adelphoi" so many years removed from the culture of the first century and based on modern Greek scholarship, then I am afraid that the truth of the continuing virginity of the blessed mother will be elusive. However, if one looks at the other supporting evidence such as the theological speculation as I have stated and the historical evidence then we can unequivocally conclude that the continuing teaching of the Church as to the blessed mothers continuing virginity is the only conclusion that can be supported.These are the facts that we know:
Jesus did give the care of His mother to St. John instead of a sibling.
No Church father ever wrote of any siblings of Jesus.
There are no records of any descendants from siblings of our Lord. The Church would have surely kept such records.
Lacking any supporting evidence of Jesus having siblings it would be reasonable to assume that the 2000 year teaching of the Church that the blessed mother was forever virgin should influence the interpreter to accept the interpretation that "adelphoi" means something other than siblings. God bless!
In Christ
Fr. Joseph
Source(s): Former professor of Latin, Early Church History and OT Studies - Ár DaonlathasLv 61 decade ago
We find in Luke 2:41-51 that Jesus is found missing. Joseph and Mary are frantic and search for him for three days and then find him in the Temple. I find it odd that throughout those three days there is no mention of any siblings helping in the search for Jesus.
A second argument is pretty evident at His actions on the cross. Our Lord entrusted his mother to John. That action makes no sense if Mary had other sons (John 19:26-27). The social customs of the time would have made such an action unthinkable, a slap in the face to his brothers. Within the Jewish tradition, as within most traditions for that matter, it would be highly unlikely for a son to entrust his mother to another man, who was not a brother, if he had other siblings. In John's Gospel we read:
When Jesus saw his mother, and the disciple whom he loved standing near, he said to his mother, "Woman behold, your son!" Then he said to the disciple, "Behold, your mother!" And from that hour the disciple took her to his home. John 19:26-27
Within the Jewish tradition, if the father is dead, the mother is the responsibility of the eldest son, if he dies the mother is then entrusted to the next son in line.
It just wouldn't make sense for Jesus to entrust Mary to St. John, nor for St. John to take her into his home if she already had family to live with.
A third arguement, we find that in Luke 1:34 Mary is surprised by the angel’s announcement that she will bear a son. She was already betrothed, or to be married, and she was surprised that she is going to bear a son? Why would she be surprised at that statement? She answered that she does not know man. You would think that Mary would just assume that her husband-to-be is going to father her a child. She would only be surprised if she vowed to stay a virgin. Only after she questions the angel about her virginity does the angel explain that “The Holy Spirit will come upon you, and the power of the Most High will overshadow you; therefore the holy thing which is born will be called the Son of God.” (Luke 1:35) Only then does she seem to understand.
- DaverLv 71 decade ago
Jesus' "Brothers" (adelphoi)) = Cousins or Kinsmen
Luke 1:36 - Elizabeth is Mary's kinswoman. Some Bibles translate kinswoman as "cousin," but this is an improper translation because in Hebrew and Aramaic, there is no word for "cousin."
Luke 22:32 - Jesus tells Peter to strengthen his "brethren." In this case, we clearly see Jesus using "brethren" to refer to the other apostles, not his biological brothers.
Acts 1:12-15 - the gathering of Jesus' "brothers" amounts to about 120. That is a lot of "brothers." Brother means kinsmen in Hebrew.
Acts 7:26; 11:1; 13:15,38; 15:3,23,32; 28:17,21 - these are some of many other examples where "brethren" does not mean blood relations.
Rom. 9:3 - Paul uses "brethren" and "kinsmen" interchangeably. "Brothers" of Jesus does not prove Mary had other children.
Gen. 11:26-28 - Lot is Abraham's nephew ("anepsios") / Gen. 13:8; 14:14,16 - Lot is still called Abraham's brother (adelphos") . This proves that, although a Greek word for cousin is "anepsios," Scripture also uses "adelphos" to describe a cousin.
Gen. 29:15 - Laban calls Jacob is "brother" even though Jacob is his nephew. Again, this proves that brother means kinsmen or cousin.
Deut. 23:7; 1 Chron. 15:5-18; Jer. 34:9; Neh. 5:7 -"brethren" means kinsmen. Hebrew and Aramaic have no word for "cousin."
2 Sam. 1:26; 1 Kings 9:13, 20:32 - here we see that "brethren" can even be one who is unrelated (no bloodline), such as a friend.
2 Kings 10:13-14 - King Ahaziah's 42 "brethren" were really his kinsmen.
1 Chron. 23:21-22 - Eleazar's daughters married their "brethren" who were really their cousins.
Neh. 4:14; 5:1,5,8,10,14 - these are more examples of "brothers" meaning "cousins" or "kinsmen."
Tobit 5:11 - Tobit asks Azarias to identify himself and his people, but still calls him "brother."
Amos 1: 9 - brotherhood can also mean an ally (where there is no bloodline).
- IlluminatorLv 71 decade ago
Bad Aramaic Made Easy
There Is No Word for ‘Cousin’
By Jimmy Akin
In 2002, a unique archaeological find was announced: a limestone ossuary (or bone box) that may have held the remains of James, the "brother" of Jesus. The box dates to first-century Palestine and is inscribed in Jesus’ native language, Aramaic, with the words "James, son of Joseph, brother of Jesus.
for more information, see http://www.catholic.com/thisrock/2003/0309fea2.asp
The Original Languages
http://www.catholic.com/thisrock/2004/0407bt.asp
Luke 1:36 - Elizabeth is Mary's kinswoman. Some Bibles translate kinswoman as "cousin," but this is an improper translation because in Hebrew and Aramaic, there is no word for "cousin."
Luke 22:32 - Jesus tells Peter to strengthen his "brethren." In this case, we clearly see Jesus using "brethren" to refer to the other apostles, not his biological brothers.
Acts 1:12-15 - the gathering of Jesus' "brothers" amounts to about 120. That is a lot of "brothers." Brother means kinsmen in Hebrew.
Acts 7:26; 11:1; 13:15,38; 15:3,23,32; 28:17,21 - these are some of many other examples where "brethren" does not mean blood relations.
Rom. 9:3 - Paul uses "brethren" and "kinsmen" interchangeably. "Brothers" of Jesus does not prove Mary had other children.
Gen. 11:26-28 - Lot is Abraham's nephew ("anepsios") / Gen. 13:8; 14:14,16 - Lot is still called Abraham's brother (adelphos") . This proves that, although a Greek word for cousin is "anepsios," Scripture also uses "adelphos" to describe a cousin.
Gen. 29:15 - Laban calls Jacob is "brother" even though Jacob is his nephew. Again, this proves that brother means kinsmen or cousin.
Deut. 23:7; 1 Chron. 15:5-18; Jer. 34:9; Neh. 5:7 -"brethren" means kinsmen. Hebrew and Aramaic have no word for "cousin."
2 Sam. 1:26; 1 Kings 9:13, 20:32 - here we see that "brethren" can even be one who is unrelated (no bloodline), such as a friend.
2 Kings 10:13-14 - King Ahaziah's 42 "brethren" were really his kinsmen.
1 Chron. 23:21-22 - Eleazar's daughters married their "brethren" who were really their cousins.
Neh. 4:14; 5:1,5,8,10,14 - these are more examples of "brothers" meaning "cousins" or "kinsmen."
Tobit 5:11 - Tobit asks Azarias to identify himself and his people, but still calls him "brother."
Amos 1: 9 - brotherhood can also mean an ally (where there is no bloodline).
- Shirley TLv 71 decade ago
In the Aramaic of Jesus' time, the same word for brothers was used for cousins.
Now, I under the Eastern Orthodox believe they were Joseph's children by a previous marriage.
One thing, taking one word from an English bible and making and feeling it definitely proves something can be foolish.
The fact that there would only be one word used for brother and cousin seems funny to English speaking people. However, in Italian, one word, nipote, means neice,
nephew, granddaughter of grandson.
- cashelmaraLv 71 decade ago
There are some who claim that Jesus was not an only child, that Mary had children in addition to Jesus. Whether Jesus was an only child or whether He had a dozen siblings really matters not a whit to them except that it attacks the Catholic Church in what they consider to be the weak area, Marian doctrine.
The Church teaches us that Mary was perpetually a virgin and this is what we affirm every time we recite the Confiteor (Penitential Rite) ". . . and I ask the blessed Mary, ever virgin . . ." The perpetual virginity of Mary has been defended by the Church since the 4th century when St. Athanasius wrote in his Discourses Against the Aryans (A.D. 358-362): "He took true human flesh from the Ever-Virgin Mary." Pope St. Siricius defended the teaching in 392, and the fifth ecumenical council (Constantinople II) in 553 gave Mary the title "perpetual virgin."
Was Jesus an only child?
In the biological sense..........yes.
In the spiritual sense, Romans 8:15-17 tells us that we are adopted children of God and coheirs with Christ if only we suffer with Him.
Malachi 2:10 says "Have we not all one father?
Has not one God created us?"
Suffice it to say that Jesus has millions of ‘brethren'.
- Margaret LLv 41 decade ago
The Catholics say that Mary stayed virgin even after the birth of Jesus. Some Protestants and the fundies say that Mary had other children. All of them say that their belief is supported by the Bible. So it is all a matter of interpretation.
But since we know from history that the Catholic Church compiled the Bible and that the New Testament books were written by Catholics, I will have to agree with the Catholic interpretation.
