Lanchestrian Monopoly -- can anyone explain this term?

http://en.wikipedia.org/w/index.php?title=Special:...

'In June 1453, Somerset was granted custody of the lordship of Glamorgan – part of the Despenser heritage held by Warwick until then – and open conflict broke out between the two men.[14] Then, in the summer of that year, King Henry fell ill.[15] Somerset was a favourite of the king and Queen Margaret, and with the king incapacitated he was virtually in complete control of government.'

'York's first protectorate did not last long. Early in 1455 the king rallied sufficiently to return to power, at least nominally, with Somerset again wielding real power.[20] Warwick returned to his estates, as did York and Salisbury, and the three started raising troops.[21] Marching towards London, they encountered the king at St Albans, where the two forces clashed. The battle was brief and not particularly bloody, but it was the first instance of armed hostilities between the forces of the Houses of York and Lancaster in the conflict known as the Wars of the Roses.[22] It was also significant because it resulted in the capture of the king, and the death of Somerset.'

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Richard_Neville,_16th...

Monopoly power by benefit of an others misfortune.

Lanchestrian monopoly has nothing to do with English history. It is a Japanese model developed by T. Onoda from the atttrition work of Frederick Lanchester. Simply put, if an organization has at least a 73.9% market share, they have a Lanchestrian monopoly.

H*** no! But this fella thinks you should see these references...when you figure it out, see if you can make it simple for me {computer-challenged}.

http://www.cnet.com/8705-4_1-0.html?username=SmpCt...

TY, for the new word to add to my long list!