Who Was Most Likely Accurate in Baptism?

EVERY time the Bible records the name or formula associated with an actual baptism in the New Testament church, it describes the name Jesus. All five such accounts occur in the Book of Acts, the history book of the early church. It records that the following people were baptized in Jesus' name.

The Jews: "Then Peter said unto them, Repent, and be baptized every one of you in the name of Jesus Christ for the remission of sins, and ye shall receive the gift of the Holy Ghost" (Acts 2:38).

The Samaritans: "They were baptized in the name of the Lord Jesus' (Acts 8:16).

The Gentiles: "And he commanded them to be baptized in the name of the Lord" (Acts 10:48). (The earliest Greek manuscripts that we have say, "In the name of Jesus Christ," as do most versions today.)

The disciples of John (rebaptized): "They were baptized in the name of the Lord Jesus" (Acts 19:5).

The Apostle Paul: "Arise, and be baptized, and wash away thy sins, calling on the name of the Lord" (Acts 22:16).

Moreover, the Epistles contain a number of references or allusions to baptism in Jesus' name. [See Romans 6:3-4; I Corinthians 1:13; 6:11; Galatians 3:27 ; Colossians 2:12; James 2:7]

The only verse of Scripture that anyone could appeal to in support of a threefold baptismal formula is Matthew 28:19, in which Jesus commanded baptism "in the name of the Father, and of the Son, and of the Holy Ghost." The word name in this verse is singular, however, indicating that the phrase describes one supreme name by which the one God is revealed, NOT three names of three distinct persons.

The apostles understood Christ's words as a description of His own name, for they fulfilled His command by baptizing in the name of Jesus. There is only one God (Deuteronomy 6:4), and He has one supreme name today (Zechariah 14:9). Jesus is the incarnation of all the fulness of the Godhead (Colossians 2:9). Jesus is the name of the Son (Matthew 1:21), Jesus is the name by which the Father is revealed to us (John 5:43; 10:30; 14:9-11), and Jesus is the name in which the Holy Spirit comes (John 14:16-18, 26).

Luke 24:47 is a parallel verse to Matthew 28:19, and describes Jesus as saying that repentance and remission of sins-and baptism is for the remission of sins (Acts 2:38)-would be preached "in his name." Jesus is the only saving name, the name in which we receive remission of sins, the highest name made known to us, and the name which we are to say and do all things (Acts 4:12; 10:43; Philippians 2:9-11; Colossians 3:17).

Thus the one supreme, saving name of Matthew 28:19 is Jesus. We are to fulfill the command of that verse AS THE EARLY CHURCH DID by invoking the name of Jesus at baptism.

Blessings!

SJC

HEBREWS 9:22 - The application of the blood of Christ is necessary to remit sin. What then is the Biblical way to receive remission of sin? The answer to this question will also be the only way to get the Saviour's blood applied.

LUKE 24:47 - "And that repentance and remission of sins should be preached in His NAME...." (Jesus)

ACTS 2:38 - "Repent, and be baptized every one of you in the NAME of Jesus Christ for the remission of sins..."

Clearly the blood of Jesus is applied ONLY through water baptism in the name of Jesus.

[Also see 1 John 5:8 and Acts 22:16]

Jesus fulfills all the prophecy concerning the Messiah, proving He is the Messiah. He also said on multiple occasions that He was God. He couldn't be the Messiah and lie about who He was. Also, He continued to perform miracles and the Father would not allow that if Jesus was lying about who He was. So we know He was God too. Oh, and the Jews are still and always will be God's chose people. They never ceased to be. God doesn't break His covenants. Christians are grafted onto Abraham's children and are therefore God's people as well. See Romans.

Just because something is not mentioned in a book does not mean it is not so. Today we have TV, but just because someone does not mention a married couple who have just had triplets does not make it less real.

If you want anachronisms, look for something which is contradictory, not just something which does not have all the bits of the story you want.

Today, Christian churches have , to a greater or lesser extent, their minister saying ' I baptise you n the Name of the Father, putting bit of water on the baby, and the son, another splash, and in the name of the Holy Spirit, at which point many people stand and applaud.

If I remember correctly, Jesus Himself made sure He was baptised in water by John The Baptist.

As for scholars, I would generally say they say a lot of things and it is difficult to separate the wheat from the chaff

In Matthew 28:18 Jesus told His disciples that all POWER was given to Him. And with that topic of conversation in mind He commanded them to go forth and teach this to all nations. He said, "Go ye therefore, and teach all nations..." "Therefore," means, "due to this reason." They were to baptize willing candidates in the name of the Father, and of the Son and of the Holy Ghost for the preceding reason. After hearing that all power is in Jesus, the disciples would baptize people in response to this truth.

A name signifies a distinction of reputation. And all power was given to Jesus. By seeing these points we clearly realize that the baptism in Matthew 28:19 is in Jesus' name. This makes it a response to the truth of Jesus' almighty power. The issue in this portion of Scripture is power as introduced by verse 18.

Imagine that Jesus was merely a second person. Why would He reveal His position of having all power, and then tell people to respond to that truth by being baptized in the power or authority of Himself, and two other persons? If He has all power we need only immerse ourselves into the name, or power, of Jesus Christ. Therefore, it only stands to reason that the name of the Father, and of the Son, and of the Holy Ghost be Jesus. There can be no multiple personalities within the Godhead according to these verses.

If Father, Son and Holy Ghost were three persons, Jesus would have said, "All power is the Father's, mine and the Holy Ghost's." And the "therefore" would follow this with the command to baptize in the "names" of the Father and of the Son and of the Holy Ghost. Jesus, however, clearly defined all power as belonging to Himself. Baptism is the act which a minister performs with a person after teaching that person the truth of Jesus' Lordship. The person must then admit the lordship of Jesus. The individual must agree with Jesus' statement, "All power is given unto me." Romans 6:6 tells us that God removes the old man as the minister baptizes the individual "into" Jesus Christ.

We can trust what Jesus said.

Remember how Jesus was baptized, in a river?

And what exactly does that word "baptism" mean. Oh yes, "immersed".

Baptism only happened to believers until at least 370 AD then Theodosius took over the church and then the whole thing become powerless.

I think we can trust what Jesus said more than we can trust the followers of Theodosius.

"Who Was Most Likely Accurate in Baptism?

Peter, Paul, Philip and the Early Church or modern day "Scholars"?"

-- And then you give us your answer as a modern day scholar. Go pick a scholarly answer.

Most modern day scholars do not preach the same message that the apostles did.

I believe the apostles message....they were with JESUS!!!!

all of them were they all baptized as matthew 28:19

jesus and the father and the holy spirit are one

when you say jesus name it also includes the father and the holy spirit since all three are one

the holy spirit of god says they did

John 14:23 Jesus answered and said unto him, If a man love me, he will keep my words: and my Father will love him, and we will come unto him, and make our abode with him.

1 John 5:7 For there are three that bear record in heaven, the Father, the Word, and the Holy Ghost: and these three are one.

you are being literalistic

Matthew 28:19 is a direct quotation of Jesus. I'll take his word over yours.