Yahoo Answers is shutting down on May 4th, 2021 (Eastern Time) and beginning April 20th, 2021 (Eastern Time) the Yahoo Answers website will be in read-only mode. There will be no changes to other Yahoo properties or services, or your Yahoo account. You can find more information about the Yahoo Answers shutdown and how to download your data on this help page.

Abstract Algebra question(s)?

I've been stuck on this for a while now, and it's really bothering me.

If G is an Abelian group, with a,b ∈ G, with ord(a) = m, ord(b) = n, then (ab)^(mn) = e. Indicate where you use the condition that G is Abelian.

I actually did this problem, but I'm not sure if I put the condition of G being Abelian in the right place.

(ab)^(mn) = ((ab)^m)^n = ((a^m)(b^m))^n = (eb^m)^n = {b^mn = b^nm} = (b^n)^m = e^m = e

The brackets are where I use the condition of G being Abelian.

G is an Abelian group, with a,b ∈ G, with ord(a) = m, ord(b) = n. Prove that ord(ab) divides ord(a)ord(b).

I'm completely stuck on this one. It's obvious if ord(ab) = 0 (mod m) or (mod n), but otherwise I'm completely lost.

Thanks for your help!

2 Answers

Relevance
  • 1 decade ago
    Favorite Answer

    As for your first question, unfortunately, no you didn't use the condition of being abelian there. Remember that:

    (ab)^(mn)

    means the product:

    (ab)(ab)(ab)(ab)...(ab)

    where there are mn terms. Then, of course, there are nm terms, since mn = nm. This is the commutativity of multiplication of integers, not the commutativity of the group operation. It still holds even if G was not abelian. Where you did use the commutativity of the group operation was in the step:

    ((ab)^m)^n = ((a^m)(b^m))^n

    In a general group:

    (ab)^m = abababab....ab

    (a^m)(b^m) = aaaa...abbbb...b

    You used the fact that G was abelian to rearrange the top product to obtain the bottom product. As for your other question, you know from the previous question that:

    (ab)^(nm) = e

    Now, this actually implies that the order of ab is a divisor of mn. This is typically proved as a more general result:

    If a is an element of group G, and if a^n = e, then ord(a) divides n.

    If you haven't yet covered this in lectures, we can prove it here. Let m = ord(a). We know, clearly, that m <= n. We also know, from the division algorithm that there exists a unique q and unique r such that 0 <= r < m and:

    n = qm + r

    So:

    a^n = a^(qm + r)

    e = (a^(qm))(a^r)

    e = ((a^m)^q)(a^r)

    e = (e^q)(a^r)

    e = e(a^r)

    e = a^r

    But r < m = ord(a), so by the definition of ord(a), the only possible value for r must be 0. Therefore:

    n = qm

    i.e. m = ord(a) divides n.

  • 1 decade ago

    Your first use of the property that G is abelian appears right here:

    ((ab)^m)^n = ((a^m)(b^m))^n

    In general, what is (ab)^m? It is

    (ab)(ab)...(ab) (m times).

    If this is (aa...a)(bb....b) = a^mb^m, then it must be that a and b commute.

    It doesn't matter if G is abelian or not when you conclude b^(nm) = b^(mn), that is just commutitivity of the integers m and n---or commutativity of b with itself which doesn't require an abelian group.

    I'll look at the rest, but don't know if I can contribute or not. I'll come back if I can.

    *** Update ***

    I have a proof of the second part, but it is by contradiction. Perhaps you can mold it into a direct proof.

    Let ord(ab) = k and suppose that k does not divide mn.

    Then mn = αk + ß, where 0 < ß < k.

    From the first part of the problem we have

    e = (ab)^(mn)

    = (ab)^(αk + ß)

    = (ab)^(αk)(ab)^ß

    =[(ab)^k]^α (ab)^ß

    = e (ab)^ß

    = (ab)^ß

    But then (ab)^ß = e. As ß < k, this contradicts k = ord(ab). Hence k divides mn. ■

Still have questions? Get your answers by asking now.