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Proof: ∑ [k=1...m] cos(2kΘ) = ( sin(mΘ) cos((m+1)Θ) ) / sin(Θ) .... m∈ℤ+, Θ ≠ nπ for ∀n∈ℤ?
m
∑ cos(2kΘ) = ( sin(mΘ) cos((m+1)Θ) ) / sin(Θ)
k = 1
for any positive integer m and any θ that is not an integer multiple of π.
Or is there a simple way to see that this is true?
2 Answers
- Scythian1950Lv 710 years agoFavorite Answer
I think the easiest way to treat this one is to first convert Cos(2kΘ) to the exponential form (1/2)(e^(-2ikΘ) + e^(2ikΘ)), and then find the infinite sum of a basic power series. Then simplify the resulting expression and convert back to trigonometric form. The intermediary form before conversion back to trigonometric form is:
(1/2) (1/(e^(2iΘ) - 1) (e^(-2iΘm)) (e^(2iΘm) - 1) (e^(2iΘ(m+1)) + 1)
From this, you can make out the trigonometric form.
- gôhpihánLv 710 years ago
Use Mathematical Induction
show that it is true for m = 1
Then assume m = W is true, with W ââ¤+
The show that m = W + 1 is also true
Then you will get to this part, but I seem to get stuck trying to prove it
sin(WÎ) cos((W+1)Î) + sin(Î) cos((2W+2)Î) = sin((W+1)Î) cos((W+2)Î)
Damn.... my trigonometry sucks..... gonna star this so some math genius will prove this trigonometric identity.
Anyway, that's the idea how to solve it.
I'll be happier if there's a way to solve this without mathematical induction....