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4 Answers
- krkLv 710 years ago
In popular thought, each spoken language has a sign language counterpart. There is a sense in which this is true, in as much as a linguistic population generally contains Deaf members who often generate a sign language. In much the same way that geographical or cultural forces isolate populations and lead to the generation of different and distinct spoken languages, the same forces operate on signed languages and so they tend to maintain their identities through time in roughly the same areas of influence as the local spoken languages. This occurs even though sign languages generally do not have any linguistic relation to the spoken languages of the lands in which they arise. In fact, the correlation between signed and spoken languages is much more complex than commonly thought, and due to the geographic influences just mentioned, varies depending on the country more than the spoken language.
Source(s): Wikipedia - Anonymous5 years ago
No, sign language isn't the comparable in each and every united states of america. I studied ASL (American sign Language) for some months, then lived in Spain for a pair of years. I met a deaf couple, and talked to them by using their daughter. The signs and warning signs have been extremely different than ASL.
- Anonymous10 years ago
No. It's not the same. That's why there is "American Sign" and "Spanish sign" and...well, you get the picture.