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Lv 5

Serious Bible Students: In the context, should 'the lord's day' in Rev. 1:10 refer to a day in a week?

According to Rev. 1:1 reference is made 'to the things that must shortly take place'. Some understand this to be one day in a week, like Sunday. The events taking place could not all have taken place on a literal day like Sunday, so what do the Holy Pronouncements of Almighty God Jehovah refer to here, please?

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  • 10 years ago
    Favorite Answer

    What, then, is “the Lord’s day”? The context of Revelation 1:10 points to Jesus as the Lord whose day it is. God’s Word identifies expressions such as “the day of our Lord Jesus Christ” with a time of judgment for mankind and the restoration of Paradise.—

    1 Corinthians 1:8 He will also make You firm to the end, that You may be open to no accusation in----- the day of our Lord Jesus Christ.

    1 Corinthians 15:24-26 Next, the end, when he hands over the kingdom to his God and Father, when he has brought to nothing all government and all authority and power. For he must rule as king until [God] has put all enemies under his feet.  As the last enemy, death is to be brought to nothing.

    Philippians 1:6 For I am confident of this very thing, that he who started a good work in YOU will carry it to completion until ---the day of Jesus Christ.

    Philippians 1:10 that You may make sure of the more important things, so that You may be flawless and not be stumbling others up to--- the day of Christ,

    (Philippians 2:16) keeping a tight grip on the word of life, that I may have cause for exultation in ---Christ’s day,--- that I did not run in vain or work hard in vain.

    Source(s): www.watchtower.org
  • 10 years ago

    Yes it does. John was in the Spirit, that is, walking in unclouded fellowship with God and thus in a position to receive divine communications. This should remind us that you "have to be near to hear". The secret of the Lord is with those who fear Him, Psalms 25:14. It was on the Lord's day, that is, the first day of the week. That was the day of Christ's resurrection, of two subsequent appearances to His disciples, of the descent of the Spirit at Pentecost. The disciples gathered to break bread on the Lord's Day and Paul instructed the Corinthians to take a collection on the first day. Some think that John refers to the time of judgment about which he will be writing, but the expression is quite different in the original scripture.

    Source(s): The Belivers Bible Commentary, by William Macdonald.
  • 10 years ago

    The fulfillment of other Bible prophecies helps us to see when the Lord’s day begins.

    For example, Daniel described a chopping down of rulership in the line of King David; after “seven times” it would be known “that the Most High is Ruler in the kingdom of mankind, and that to the one whom he wants to he gives it.” (Daniel 4:23, 24, 31, 32)

    The major fulfillment of that prophecy started with the desolating of the kingdom of Judah, which is indicated by Bible evidence to have been completed by October 607 B.C.E.

    Revelation 12:6, 14 shows that 3 1/2 times amounts to 1,260 days; hence, seven times (twice that number) must be 2,520 days.

    Reckoning “a day for a year,” we arrive at 2,520 years as the duration of the “seven times.” (Ezekiel 4:6)

    Therefore, Christ Jesus began his heavenly rule in the latter part of 1914. The erupting of the first world war in that year marked “a beginning of pangs of distress” that have continued to plague mankind. Since 1914, how remarkably events in this bloodstained earth have confirmed that year to be the start of the “day” of Jesus’ presence!—Matthew 24:3-14.

    Hence, this first vision and the counsel it contains are for the Lord’s day, from 1914 onward. This timing is supported by the fact that, later in Revelation, the record describes the execution of God’s true and righteous judgments—events in which the Lord Jesus plays an outstanding part. (Revelation 11:18; 16:15; 17:1; 19:2, 11)

    If the fulfillment of the first vision began in 1914, when does it end?

    As the messages themselves show, the organization addressed is God’s congregation of anointed ones on earth. The fulfillment of this first vision ends, then, when the last faithful member of that anointed congregation dies and is raised to heavenly life.

    Nevertheless, the Lord’s Day, with blessings to the earthly other sheep, continues till the end of Jesus Christ’s Millennial Rule.—John 10:16; Revelation 20:4, 5.

    Source(s): The book, Revelation: It's Grand Climax
  • 10 years ago

    John was permitted to keep the Sabbath as he had all his life while he was exiled on the isle of Patmos. His Roman guards did not have John to work in the mines but let him keep the Lord's Day, The Sabbath. It was on these Sabbaths that John received the message/visions from Christ that became Revelations.

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  • Gary B
    Lv 7
    10 years ago

    The specific reference would be to a SABBATH, in this case SUNDAY, as this had already been accepted by Christians to be "The Lord's' (Jesus') day", the day the tomb was found empty.

    Check the syntax:

    "On the Lord’s Day I was in the Spirit,"

    "On the Lord's Day" refers to JOHN, and NOT "being in the spirit". So, John was FIRST "on the Lord's Day", meditating and praying, and THEN He was "in the spirit", being guided by Jesus and the angels themselves.

    There is no implication that all these events took place on one day. John is seeing a vision, "The Revelation of Jesus Christ to John the Apostle" (which is often considered to be the FULL title of the book). Being a revelation, there is no reason to assume that it was "real time", and need not take a day to unfold it. Remember, you are talking to Jesus, here! It is quite possible that Jesus "downloaded" this vision in one huge chunk, and let John figure it our for himself as fast as his human brain could handle it.

    Any implication that the "time frame" implied by Revelation 1:10 affects the timing of the events in the revelation is completely false teaching.

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