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does faraday's law work both ways? as far as cause and effect are concerned?
1) Faraday's Law, in differential form, is
Curl E = -dB/dt
A changing magnetic field creates an azimuthal electric field.
so my question is i know if you have a changing magnetic field it induces an electric field on a amperian loop around it.....but....if you have a constant electric field that's not changing...but is directed in the same direction as an amperian loop...will there be a changing magnetic field induced through the amperian loop?
1 Answer
- Andrew SmithLv 79 years agoFavorite Answer
Yes, If you wish to consider the action on a charge. The electric field would accelerate a charge and this would cause an increase in current. The increasing current would create a magnetic field.
Now this same process happens even when there aren't charges actually moving.
In the case of an electromagnetic wave, the magnetic field is highest at the instant when the electric field is zero but is changing most rapidly.
And the magnetic field is zero at the moment when the electric field is at a maximum but is not altering rapidly.
Look up Maxwell's laws for more information.
