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Show that if [a] in Z/mZ is a zero divisor, it cannot have an inverse in Z/mZ.?

I really need a help with this, please..

2 Answers

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  • 9 years ago
    Favorite Answer

    For a zero divisor a, there exists b ≠ 0 such that ab = 0.

    Now suppose a has an inverse a⁻¹. Then

    b = (1)b = (a⁻¹a)b = a⁻¹(ab) = a⁻¹(0) = 0,

    contradicting the above assumption on b.

  • Anonymous
    4 years ago

    in case you seem on the derivation of the calculus with the aid of Leibniz you will locate the comparable element. a nil divisor. da/d0 no longer evidence of the divine yet larger arithmetic factors to infinity in lots of cases. in actuality in M-concept the difficulty of infinity stoning up in each single place is protecting decrease back progression interior the sector. interestingly that God used Infinity as his development blocks to construct the Universe.

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