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If the bible contains incitement to violence, could someone promoting the bible be prosecuted?
I'm currently reading Sam Harris "The End of Faith", where he points out that almost all "holy" books contain instructions to physically assault unbelievers, adulteresses, homosexuals etc.
Could I therefore make a citizen's arrest the next time someone recommends such a "holy" book to me?
Here is a fr'instance from Deuteronomy 17, which I would construe as a definite instruction. Even if modern apologists say the New Testament supersedes all that, it is nonetheless still promoted as the revealed word of God. Mind you this particular example does specifically say 'in Israel' so maybe this should be a question for Israelis :)
"If there be found among you, within any of thy gates which the LORD thy God giveth thee, man or woman, that hath wrought wickedness in the sight of the LORD thy God, in transgressing his covenant; 17:3 And hath gone and served other gods, and worshipped them, either the sun, or moon, or any of the host of heaven, which I have not commanded; 17:4 And it be told thee, and thou hast heard of it, and enquired diligently, and, behold, it be true, and the thing certain, that such abomination is wrought in Israel; 17:5 Then shalt thou bring forth that man or that woman, which have committed that wicked thing, unto thy gates, even that man
3 Answers
- 9 years agoFavorite Answer
I don't believe so. The arguement of free will would come into play having the theist say that they aren't forcing that part to you or any parts. I spoke to a Christian about that and they mostly said that was the old testament statement and is not followed today, so that may be their arguement too
Not too sure if I worded it correctly, bit early.
Source(s): Atheist - Anonymous9 years ago
Most likely not. The U.S. Supreme Court has held that speech is protected unless it is “directed to inciting or producing imminent lawless action and is likely to incite or produce such actions.”
To break this standard down into its component parts, to be punished the speech must be:
(1) Incitement – “directed to inciting or producing” and not the “mere abstract
teaching...of the moral propriety or even moral necessity for a resort to force and
violence”...
(2) Of (a) Imminent (and not at some vague “future” time)
(b) Lawless Action (and not lawful action)
(3) Likelihood – when all the circumstances make it “likely to incite or produce
such action”
NOTE that all three elements are necessary; An urgent attempt to incite someone to
"slaughter the infidels right now or forever burn in hell" is not punishable if the there are no "infidels" within a hundred miles.
Source(s): Brandenburg v. Ohio 395 U.S. 444 (1969) two years of constitutional law under my belt - CharlesLv 69 years ago
Can you cite some verses which incite believers to violence? If they're in the Old Testament, they're the traditions and history of nomadic middle-eastern tribes from thousands of years ago. Christians also replaced those prescriptions with "Love thy enemy." Your idea is silly. You might as well prosecute modern Mexicans because ancient Aztecs practiced ritual murder.
